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□ 第一章 绪论
□ 第二章 细胞的基本功能
□ 第三章 血液
□ 第四章 血液循环
□ 第五章 呼吸
□ 第六章 消化和呼吸
□ 第七章 能量代谢和体温
□ 第八章 尿的生成和排出
□ 第九章 感觉器官
□ 第十章 神经系统
□ 第十一章 内分泌系统
□ 第十二章 生殖
□ Autonomic Nervous System
□ Cardiovascular System
□ Endocrine System
□ Female Reproductive System Histology
□ Gastrointestinal System
□ Respiratory System
□ Urinary System
[ 本帖最后由 wangshuo1688 于 2007-7-12 09:56 PM 编辑 ]作者: wangshuo1688 时间: 07-1-26 15:12
第一章 绪论
[A1型题]
1 人体生理学的任务是阐明人体
A 细胞的生命现象
B 器官的功能活动
C 与环境的相互关系
D 体内的物理化学变化
E正常的生命活动及其规律
2 人体生命活动最基本的特征是
A 物质代谢
B 新陈代谢
C 适应性
D 应激性
E 自控调节
3 自身调节指组织、细胞在不依赖于神经或体液调节的情况下对刺激所产生的
A 适应性反应
B 旁分泌反应
C 稳态反应
D 非自控调节
E 前馈调节
4 以下哪项是由负反馈调节的生理过程
A 分娩
B 排尿反射
C 降压反射
D 小肠运动
E 血液凝固
5 体内哪种物质是不直接传递信息的
A 神经递质
B 调制物
C 内分泌激素
D 旁分泌物质
E 局部体液因素
6 内环境是指
A 细胞外液
B 细胞内液
C 血液
D 体液
E 组织液
7 能比较迅速反映内环境变动状况的体液是
A 脑脊液
B 血浆
C 尿液
D 淋巴液
E 细胞内液
8 在自动控制系统中,从受控部分发出到达控部分的信息称为
A 偏差信息
B 干扰信息
C 控制信息
D 反馈信息
E 自控信息
[A2型题]
9 家兔,雄性,体重2.1kg,20%氨基甲酸乙酯麻醉,剂量1g/kg。切开腹壁找到膀胱,
两侧输尿管扦管,收集尿液观察影响尿生成的因素。这种实验方法属于
A 整体实验
B 离体实验
C 在体慢性实验
D 在体急性实验
E 生理实验
10 人体对外环境变化产生适应性反应是依赖体内的调节机制而实现的。其中,神经调节的特点是:
A 作用迅速、精确、短暂
B 作用缓慢、广泛、持久
C 有负反馈
D 有生物节律
E 有前瞻性
[B1型题]
题11-13
A 整体水平 B 局部水平 C 组织水平 D 细胞、分子水平 E 器官、系统水平
11 揭示细胞膜的物质跨膜转运机制,属于那类研究
12 探索神经轴突动作电位形成的离子机制,属于那类研究
13 阐明呼吸节律的形成机制,属于那类研究
题14-16
A 神经调节
B 体液调节
C 自身调节
D 负反馈调节
E 前馈调节
14 运动员进入比赛场地,心血管、呼吸活动便开始增强，属于
15 平均动脉压在一范围内升降,脑血管口径产生适应性改变以
保持脑血流量相对恒定,属于
16 内环境理化性质保持相对恒定,属于
试题答案
1.E 2.B 3.A 4.C 5.B 6.A 7.B 8.D 9.D 10.A 11.D 12.D 13.E 14.E 15.C 16.D作者: wangshuo1688 时间: 07-1-26 15:13
第二章 细胞
单项选择题
1 细胞膜的热力学稳定性主要由于
A 分子间电荷吸引 B 分子间共价键 C 蛋白质的粘合
D脂质分子的双嗜性 E 糖键的作用
2 载体中介的易化扩散产生饱和现象的机理是
A跨膜梯度降低 B 载体数量减少 C 能量不够
D载体数量所致的转运极限 E 疲劳
3 钠泵活动最重要的意义是：
A维持细胞内高钾 B防止细胞肿胀 C建立势能储备
D消耗多余的ATP E 维持细胞外高钙
4 单个细胞的动作电位波形不能完全融合的原因是
A 刺激强度不够 B 刺激频率不够 C 不应期
D 细胞兴奋性过高 E 离子分布恢复不完全
5 组织处于绝对不应期，其兴奋性
A 为零 B高于正常 C低于正常
D．无限大 E．正常
6 神经细胞动作电位的幅值取决于
A．刺激强度 B．刺激持续时间 C． K＋和Na＋的平衡电位
D．阈电位水平 E．兴奋性高低
7与静息电位值的大小无关的
A．膜内外离子浓度差 B．膜对钾离子的通透性
C．膜的表面积 D．膜对钠离子的通透性
E．膜对蛋白质等负离子的通透性
8 骨骼肌细胞外液中钠离子浓度降低使
A．静息电位增大 B．动作电位幅度变小
C．去极化加速 D．膜电位降低
E．复极化加速
9．动作电位的超射值接近于
A．钠离子平衡电位 B．钾离子平衡电位
C．钠离子平衡电位与钾离子平衡电位的代数和
D．钠离子平衡电位与钾离子平衡电位的绝对值之差
E．锋电位减去后电位
10．在局部兴奋中，不应期不明显的原因是
A．激活的钠离子通道数量少，失活也少
B．与动作电位中的钠离子通道性质不同
C．阈下刺激的后作用时间短
D．没有钠离子通道的再生性开放机制
E．钾离子通道开放
11．运动终板膜上的受体是
A．M受体 B．N1受体 C．N2受体
D．β受体 E．α受体
12．神经冲动编码信息于
A．锋电位幅度 B．动作电位时程 C．锋电位传导速度
D．动作电位频率 E．锋电位传导距离
13．终板膜上与终板电位产生有关的离子通道是
A．电压门控钠离子通道
B．电压门控钾离子通道
C．电压门控钙离子通道
D．化学门控非特异性镁通道
E．化学门控钠离子和钾离子通道
参考答案:
1D 2 D 3 C 4 C 5 A 6 C 7 C 8 B 9 A 10 A 11 C 12 D 13 E作者: wangshuo1688 时间: 07-1-26 15:13
第三章 血液
〔A1型题〕
1 血浆胶体渗透压的生理作用是
A 调节血管内外水的交换
B 调节细胞内外水的交换
C 维持细胞正常体积
D 维持细胞正常形态
E 决定血浆总渗透压
2 下列哪项为等张溶液
A 0.85%NaCl溶液
B 10%葡萄糖溶液
C 1.9%尿素溶液
D 20%甘露醇溶液
E 0.85%葡萄糖溶液
3 全血的比重主要决定于
A 血浆蛋白含量
B 渗透压的高低
C 红细胞数量
D 白细胞数量
E NaCl的浓度
4 全血的粘滞性主要取决于
A 血浆蛋白含量
B 红细胞数量
C 白细胞数量
D 红细胞的叠连
E NaCl的浓度
5 组织液与血浆成分的主要区别是组织液内
A 不含血细胞
B 蛋白含量低
C Na+含量高
D K+含量高
E Cl-含量高
6 血清与血浆的主要区别在于血清缺乏
A 纤维蛋白
B 纤维蛋白原
C 凝血因子
D 血小板
E Ca2+
7 红细胞的变形能力的大小取决于红细胞的
A 体积
B 表面积
C 数量
D 比重
E 表面积与体积的比值
8 红细胞沉降率的大小取决于红细胞的
A 体积
B 表面积
C 数量
D 比重
E 叠连
9 红细胞表面积与体积的比值下降可引起红细胞
A 变形性增大
B 渗透脆性增大
C 悬浮稳定性增大
D 血沉降率降低
E 血红蛋白含量增大
10 自我复制能力最强的细胞是
A 造血干细胞
B 定向组细胞
C 前体细胞
D 网织红细胞
E 淋巴细胞
11 调节红细胞生成的主要体液因素是
A 雄激素
B 雌激素
C 甲状腺激素
* D 促红细胞生成素
E 生长激素
12 红细胞在血管外破坏的主要场所是
A 肾、肝
B 脾、肝
C 肾、脾
D 胸腺、骨髓
E 骨髓、淋巴结
13 血液凝固的发生是由于
A 纤维蛋白溶解
B 纤维蛋白的激活
* C 纤维蛋白原变为纤维蛋白
D 血小板聚集与红细胞叠连
E 因子Ⅷ的激活
14 血液凝固的内源性激活途径与外源性激活途径的主要差别在于
* A 因子X的激活过程
B 凝血酶激活过程
C 纤维蛋白形成过程
D 有无血小板参与
E 有无Ca2+参与
15 内源性凝血途径的始动因子是
* A 因子Ⅻ
B 因子Ⅱ
C 因子Ⅹ
D 因子Ⅶ
E 因子Ⅰ
16 肝素抗凝的主要机制是
A 抑制凝血酶原的激活
B 抑制因子Ⅹ的激活
C 促进纤维蛋白吸附凝血酶
D 增强抗凝血酶Ⅲ活性
E 抑制血小板聚集
17 纤溶酶的主要作用是水解
A 因子Ⅴ
B 因子Ⅱa
C 因子Ⅻ
D 因子Ⅰ和Ⅰa
E 因子Ⅳ
18 外源性凝血途径的始动因子是
A 因子Ⅰ
B 因子Ⅱ
C 因子Ⅲ
D 因子Ⅶ
E 因子X
19 在凝血过程中将纤维蛋白原转变为纤维蛋白的凝血因子是
A 因子Ⅱa
B 因子Ⅲ
C 因子Ⅳ
D 因子XⅡa
E 因子XⅢa
20 凝血酶的主要作用是
A 加速因子Ⅶ复合物的形成
B 加速凝血酶原酶复合物的形成
C 使纤维蛋白原转变为纤维蛋白
D 激活因子Ⅻ
E 促进血小板聚集
21 阿司匹林具有抗血小板聚集作用，是因为阿司匹林可抑制血小板的
A 磷脂酶A2
B 环氧合酶
C 血栓素合成酶
D 前列环素合成酶
E 过氧化酶
22 可抑制血小板聚集的物质是
A ADP
B TXA2
C PGI2
D 胶原
E 凝血酶
23 血管损伤后止血栓能正确定位于损伤部位有赖于血小板 的哪项特性
* A 粘附
B 聚集
C 收缩
D 吸附
E 释放
24 血凝块的回缩是由于
A 纤维蛋白收缩
B 红细胞叠连
C 白细胞变形
D 血小板收缩蛋白收缩
E 红细胞破裂
25 O型血的红细胞膜上含有
A A抗原
B B抗原
C O抗原
D H抗原
E C抗原
26 Rh阳性是指红细胞膜上含有
A C抗原
B A抗原
C D抗原
D E抗原
E B抗原
27 下列哪项不是血浆蛋白的生理功能
A 运输O2和CO2
B 缓冲功能
C 参与生理止血
D 参与机体的免疫功能
E 维持血浆胶体渗透压
〔A2型题〕
28 某人的红细胞与B型血的血清发生凝集，而其血清与B型血的红细胞不发生凝集，分析此人的血型为
A A型
B B型
C O型
D AB型
E Rh阳性
29 在某凝血功能障碍患者血浆中加入足量组织因子和Ca2+后血浆凝固时间明显较正常人延长，该患者可能缺乏下列哪种物质
A Ca2+
B 因子Ⅻ
C 因子Ⅷ
D 血小板
E 因子Ⅴ
30 某患者血沉增快，若将该患者的红细胞置于正常人血浆中，其红细胞沉降的速度将
A 增快
B 下降
C 正常
D 无变化
E 无法判断
31 某患者在胃大部分切除后出现巨幼红细胞性贫血的原因是对哪项物质吸收障碍
A 蛋白质
B 叶酸
C 维生素B12
D 脂肪
E 铁
32 血小板减少的患者，皮肤粘膜常自发性出现出血点和紫癜，主要是由于
A 不易形成止血栓
B 血管不易收缩
C 不能维持血管内皮的完整性
D 血凝块回缩障碍
E 血液凝固障碍
33 Rh阴性母亲，其胎儿若Rh阳性，胎儿生后易患
A 血友病
B 白血病
C 红细胞增多症
D 新生儿溶血病
E 巨幼红细胞性贫血
〔B1型题〕
题34~35
A 红细胞数目
B 血浆总蛋白含量
C 血浆球蛋白含量
D 血浆白蛋白含量
E 血浆NaCl含量
34 血液的粘滞性主要决定于
35 血浆胶体渗透压主要决定于
题36~37
A 中性粒细胞
B 嗜碱性粒细胞
C 嗜酸性粒细胞
D 淋巴细胞
E 血小板
36 处于抵御化脓性细菌入侵第一线的细胞是
37 可释放组胺引起过敏症状的细胞是
题38~40
A 因子Ⅴ
B 因子Ⅶ
C 因子Ⅷ
D 因子Ⅹ
E 因子Ⅻ
38 可增强Ⅸa活性的是
39 可增强Ⅹa活性的是
40 与纤溶酶原的激活有关的是
题41~43
A 中性粒细胞
B 嗜酸性粒细胞
C 嗜碱性粒细胞
D 单核细胞
E 淋巴细胞
41 能释放嗜酸性粒细胞趋化因子A的是
42 能释放组胺酶的是
43 能释放肝素的是
第四章 血液循环
1 心动周期中，左室内压升高速率最快的时相在
A 心房收缩期
B 等容收缩相
C 快速射血相
D 减慢射血相-
E 快速充盈相
2 心动周期中，心室血液充盈主要是由于
A 血液的重力作用
B 心房收缩的挤压作用
C 胸膜腔内负压
D 心室舒张的抽吸
E 骨骼肌的挤压
3 心动周期是指
A 心脏机械活动周期
B 心脏生物电活动周期
C 心音活动周期
D 心率变化周期
E 室内压变化周期
4 心指数是指下列哪项计算的心输出量
A 单位体重
B 单位身高
C 单位体表面积
D 单位年龄
E 单位能量消耗率
5 可引起射血分数增大的因素
A 心室舒张末期容积增大
B 动脉血压升高
C 心率减慢
D 心肌收缩能力增强
E 快速射血相缩短
6 反映心脏健康程度的指标是
A 每分输出量
B 心指数
C 射血分数
D 心脏作功量
E 心力储备
7 用于分析比较不同身材个体心功能的常用指标是
A 每分输出量
B 心指数
C 射血分数
D 心脏作功量
E 心力储备
8 用于分析比较动脉血压值不相同的个体之间心脏泵功能的常用指标是
A 每分输出量
B 心指数
C 射血分数
D 心脏作功量
E 心力储备
9 心肌不产生完全强直收缩的原因是心肌
A 为机能合胞体
B 肌浆网不发达，储Ca2+ 少
C 有自律性
D 呈\"全或无\"收缩
E 有效不应期长
10 心肌的异长自身调节通过改变下列哪个因素来调节心脏的泵血功能
A 肌小节初长
B 肌钙蛋白活性
C 肌浆游离Ca2+浓度
D 心肌收缩能力
E 横桥ATP酶活性
11 心肌的等长自身调节通过改变下列哪个因素调节心脏的泵血功能
A 肌小节初长
B 肌钙蛋白活性
C 肌浆游离Ca2+浓度
D 心肌收缩能力
E 横桥ATP酶活性
12 动脉血压升高可引起
A 心室收缩期延长
B 等容收缩相延长
C 心室射血期延长
D 心室舒张期延长
E 心房收缩期延长
13 异长自身调节是由于下列哪项发生了变化
A 粗细肌丝重叠状态
B 横桥ATP酶活性
C 胞浆游离Ca2+浓度
D 肌钙蛋白对Ca2+亲合力
E 肌动蛋白活性
14 正常人心率超过180次/min时，心输出量减少的原因主要是哪一时相缩短
A 快速充盈相
B 减慢充盈相
C 等容收缩相
D 减慢射血相
E 心房收缩期
15 左心室的搏功大于右室的主要原因是下列哪一项的差别
A 每搏输出量
B 射血速度
C 心室舒张末期压力
D 射血分数
E 肺动脉平均压
16 下列哪一心音可作为心室舒张期开始的标志
A 第一心音
B 第二心音
C 第三心音
D 第四心音
E 二尖瓣关闭音
17 下列哪一心音可作为心室收缩期开始的标志
A 第一心音
B 第二心音
C 第三心音
D 第四心音
E 主动脉瓣关闭音
18 心室肌细胞动作电位的2期复极形成与下列哪种因素有关
A Na+内流与Ca2+内流
B Na+内流与K+外流
C Ca2+内流与K+外流
D Ca2+内流与Cl-内流
E K+外流与Cl-内流
19 心室肌细胞绝对不应期的产生是由于
A Na+通道处于激活状态
B Na+ 通道处于备用状态
C Ca2+通道处于激活状态
D Ca2+ 通道处于失活状态
E Na+ 通道处于失活状态
20 心室肌细胞是否具有兴奋性的前提是 Na+通道处于什么状态
A 启动
B 备用
C 激活
D 失活
E 开放
21 心室肌细胞动作电位持续时间长的主要原因是哪一期的时程长
A 0期除极
B 1期复极
C 2期复极
D 3期复极
E 4期
22 心室肌细胞不具有下列哪一生理特性
A 兴奋性
B 自律性
C 传导性
D 收缩性
E 有效不应期长
23 浦肯野细胞不具有下列哪一生理特性
A 兴奋性
B 自律性
C 传导性
D 收缩性
E 有效不应期长 24 钠泵活动抑制剂可引起心肌
A 收缩增强
B 舒张增快
C 静息电位增大
D 传导性增高
E 动作电位增高
25 钙通道阻断剂异搏定对浦肯野氏细胞动作电位的影响是
A 0期除极幅度降低
B 0期除极速度减慢
C 1期复极时程缩短
D 2期复极时程缩短
E 3期复极时程缩短
26 快反应细胞与慢反应细胞的区别是哪一期的快慢
A 0期除极
B 1期复极
C 2期复极
D 3期复极
E 4期自动除极
27 窦房结能成为心脏正常起搏点的原因是
A 最大复极电位低
B 阈电位与最大复极电位差距小
C 0期除极速度低
* D 4期自动除极速度快
E 动作电位无明显平台期
28 心肌收缩呈\"全或无\"特点是因为心肌细胞
A 动作电位时程长
B 动作电位有平台
C 细胞间有闰盘
D 有自律性
E 兴奋传导快
29 在相对不应期内刺激心肌，所引发的动作电位的特点是
A 阈强度大
B 0期除极快
C 时程长
D 传导快
E 复极慢
30 心脏正常起搏点位于
A 窦房结
B 心房
C 房室交界区
D 心室末梢浦肯野氏纤维网
E 心室
31 下列哪项不影响心肌细胞的自律性
A 最大复极电位
B 阈电位
C 有效不应期
D 4期自动去极速度
E 最大复极电位与阈电位差距
32 去甲肾上腺素使浦肯野细胞自律性增高是通过
A 最大复极电位降低
B 电位水平下降
C If电流增强
D 膜对K+通透性降低
E Isi电流增大
33 乙酰胆碱使窦房结细胞自律性降低是通过
A 最大复极电位降低
B 阈电位水平下降
C If电流增强
D 膜对K+通透性增大
E Ca2+内流增强
34 超常期内心肌兴奋性高于正常，所以
A 兴奋传导速度高于正常
B 动作电位幅度大于正常
C 0期去极速率高于正常
D 刺激阈值低于正常
E 自动节律性高于正常
35 心室肌有效不应期的长短主要取决于
A 动作电位0期除极速度
B 阈电位水平高低
C 动作电位2期时程
D 钠泵功能
E 动作电位传导速度
36 可引起心肌传导性降低的因素是
A 细胞长度缩短
B 0期除极速度增大
C 0期除极幅度增大
D 心肌细胞部分去极化
E 邻近末兴奋部位膜的兴奋性增高
37 下列哪种心肌细胞4期自动去极速度最大
A 窦房结细胞
B 心房肌细胞
C 房室交界细胞
D 浦肯野细胞
E 心室肌细胞
38 当细胞外Ca2+浓度降低时主要引起心肌
A 收缩降低
B 舒张减慢
C 收缩增强
D 舒张增快
E 传导增快
39 下列哪项可引起心率减少
A 交感活动增强
B 迷走活动增强
C 肾上腺素
D 甲状腺激素
E 发热
40 房室交界区传导减慢可致
A P波增宽
B QRS波群增宽
C T 波增宽
D P-R间期延长
E ST段延长
41 在血管系统中起血液储存库作用的血管是
A. 主动脉
B. 大动脉
C. 小动脉
D. 毛细血管
E . 静脉
42 保持血管充盈膨胀的必要条件是要有一定的
A. 血压
B. 跨壁压
C. 静水压
D. 外周阻力
E. 中心静脉压
43 在体循环中，血流阻力最大，血压降落最为显著的区段 是
A. 主动脉段
B. 大动脉段
C. 微动脉段
D. 毛细血管段
E. 微静脉段
44 在一般情况下，收缩压的高低主要反映
A. 心率
B. 外周阻力
C. 循环血量
D. 心脏每搏输出量
E. 主动脉管壁弹性
45 一般情况下影响舒张压最主要的因素是
A 每搏输出量
B 心率
C 大动脉管壁弹性
D 外周阻力
E 循环血量
46 影响外周阻力最主要的因素是
A. 血液粘滞度
B. 红细胞数目
C. 血管长度
D. 小动脉口径
E. 小静脉口径
47 老年人动脉管壁硬化，大动脉的弹性储器作用减弱，所以
A. 收缩压降低
B. 舒张压降低
C. 脉压增大
D. 舒张压升高
E. 收缩压、舒张压都升高
48 下列情况下，能使脉压增大的主要因素是
A. 射血期延长
B. 外周阻力增大
C. 心率加快
D. 体循环平均压降低
* E . 大动脉管壁弹性降低
49 循环系统平均充盈压反映下列哪项的高低
A 动脉血压
B 静脉血压
C 毛细血管
D 静脉回心血量
E 循环系统血液充盈的程度
50 中心静脉压的高低取决于下列哪项关系
A 血管容量和血量
B 动脉血压和静脉血压
C 心脏射血能力和静脉回心血量
D 心脏射血能力和外周阻力
E 外周静脉压和静脉血流阻力
51 心肌收缩力加强导致静脉回心血量增加的机制是
A 动脉血压升高
B 血流速度快
C 收缩期室内压较低
D 舒张期室内压较低
E 静脉血流阻力下降
52 下列哪项引起静脉回心血量减少
A 体循环平均充盈压增大
B 心脏收缩力量增强
C 平卧体位
D 骨骼肌节律舒缩
E 呼气动作
53在微循环中，进行物质交换的主要部位是
A. 微动脉
B. 真毛细血管
C. 通血毛细血管
D. 动静脉短路
E. 微静脉
54 微循环中参与体温调节的是
A 迂回通路
B 毛细血管前括约肌
C 动-静脉短路
D 直捷通路
E 微动脉
55 引起组织毛细血管交替开放的物质是
A 激素
B 乙酰胆碱
C 组胺
D 激肽
E 局部代谢产物
56 组织液的生成主要取决于
A 毛细血管血压
B 有效滤过压
C 血浆胶体渗透压
D 血浆晶体渗透压
E 淋巴回
57 从毛细血管动脉端滤出生成的组织液，再经静脉端重吸收入血的约占
A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 50%
D. 70%
E. 90%
58 肾病综合症时，导致组织水肿的原因是
A 毛细血管血压升高
B 血浆胶体渗透压降低
C 组织液胶体渗透压增高
D 淋巴回流受阻
E 毛细血管壁通透性增加
59 关于淋巴回流的生理意义下列哪项是错误的
A 回收蛋白质
B 运输吸收的脂肪
C 回收部分组织液
D 清除细菌
E 调节血管内外的水分交换
60 在下列器官组织中，其血管上交感缩血管纤维分布最密的是
A 骨骼肌
B 皮肤
C 心脏
D 脑
E 肾脏
61 心交感神经末梢释放的递质是
A 组胺
B 乙酰胆碱
C 肾上腺素
D 血管紧张素
E 去甲肾上腺素
62 心迷走神经末梢释放的递质是
A 组胺
B 谷氨酸
C 乙酰胆碱
D 肾上腺素
E 去甲肾上腺素
63交感缩血管神经节后纤维释放的递质是
A. 肾上腺素
B. 去甲肾上腺素
C. 乙酰胆碱
D. 血管紧张素
64 调节心血管活动的基本中枢在
A 脊髓
B 延髓
C 脑桥
D 下丘脑
E 大脑
65 对动脉血压变化较敏感的感受器位于
A. 颈动脉窦
B. 主动脉弓
C. 颈动脉体
D. 主动脉体
E. 延髓
66 降压反射的生理意义是
A. 降低动脉血压
B. 升高动脉血压
C. 减弱心血管活动
D. 加强心血管活动
E. 维持动脉血压相对恒定
67 在心动周期中动脉血压最低的时相是
A 心房收缩期末
B 等容收缩相末
C 快速射血相末
D 减慢射血相末
E 快速充盈相末
68 机体在急性失血时，最早出现的代偿反应是
A. 迷走神经兴奋
B. 交感神经兴奋
C. 组织液回流增加
D. 血管紧张素系统作用加强
E. 血浆蛋白和红细胞的恢复
69 下列物质中缩血管作用最强的是
A. 肾上腺素
B. 肾素
C. 血管紧张素Ⅱ
D. 内皮素
E. 组胺引起脑血管舒张的主要因素是
70 引起脑血管舒张的主要因素是
A 血液O2分压升高
B 血液CO2分压升高
C 交感神经兴奋
D 迷走神经兴奋
E 血液H+浓度降低
71 下列哪项可引起全身血管舒张
A 交感舒血管神经纤维兴奋
B 副交感舒血管神经纤维
C 脊髓背根舒血管纤维兴奋
D 血管活性肠肽神经元兴奋
E 交感缩血管神经纤维抑制
72 可引起毛血管通透性增大的体液因子是
A 肾素
B 肾上腺素
C 心钠素
D 缓激肽
E 阿片肽
73 肺动脉压低于主动脉压是由于
A 右心室输出量低
B 肺循环阻力小
C 肺动脉壁弹性大
D 肺血管容量大
E 肺泡内压低
74 循环系统平均充盈压反映下列哪项的高低
A 动脉血压
B 静脉血压
C 毛细血管
D 静脉回心血量
E 循环系统血液充盈的程度
75 中心静脉压的高低取决于下列哪项关系
A 血管容量和血量
B 动脉血压和静脉血压
* C 心脏射血能力和静脉回心血量
D 心脏射血能力和外周阻力
E 外周静脉压和静脉血流阻力
76 下列哪项引起静脉回心血量减少
A 体循环平均充盈压增大
B 心脏收缩力量增强
C 平卧体位
D 骨骼肌节律舒缩
E 呼气动作
77 心肌低氧引起冠脉舒张的主要因素是
A. 氢离子
B. 组胺
C. 腺苷
D. 前列腺素
E. 乳酸
【A2型题】
78 有甲、乙二患者，甲患者左心室舒张末期容积为140ml，收缩末期容积为56ml；乙患者左室舒张末期容积为160ml，收缩末期容积为64ml，两患者的射血分数
A 相等
B 甲患者高于乙患者
C 乙患者高于甲患者
D 无法判断
E 均低于正常
79 两患者均为青年男性，其中甲患者身高1.5m、体重50kg ,体表面积1.4m2、安静时每分输 出量4.2L；乙患者身高1.6 m,体重68kg、体表面积1.7m2、安静时每分输出量5.1L两患者的 心指数
A 甲患者优于乙患者
B 乙患者优于甲患者
C 相同
D 均高于正常
E 均低于正常
80 某患者出现颈静脉怒张，肝脏肿大和双下肢水肿，最可能的心血管疾病是
A. 左心衰
B. 右心衰
C. 肺水肿
D. 高血压
E. 中心静脉压降低
81 某患者由平卧位突然站立，静脉回心血量减少，每搏输出量、动脉血压降低。该患者每搏输出量减少是由于下列哪项所致
A 心室后负荷增大
B 心迷走神经兴奋
C 心交感神经兴奋
D 异长调节
E 等长调节
82 在体外实验观察到当血压在一定范围内变动时器官、组织的血流量仍能维持相对恒定，这种调节反应称为
A. 神经调节
B. 体液调节
C. 神经-体液调节
D. 正反馈调节
E. 自身调节
83 在动物实验过程中出现每搏输出量降低，左心室舒张末期
压力降低，血压降低，分析其原因是
A 静脉回流减少
B 心肌收缩能力降低
C 后负荷增大
D 心率减慢
E 射血分数降低
84 在实验过程中给予动物某药物后出现心率减慢，心电图
P-R间期延长，该药物是
A 阿托品
B 心得安
C 肾上腺素
D 去甲肾上腺素
E 酚妥拉明
85 实验中，夹闭兔双侧颈总动脉后全身动脉血压升高，心率加快，其主要原因是
A. 颈动脉窦受到牵张刺激
B. 颈动脉窦受到缺氧刺激
C. 主动脉弓受到牵张刺激
D. 颈动脉神经传入冲动减少
E. 主动脉神经传入冲动减少
86 兔实验安静时给予M受体阻断剂阿托品可引起心率明显增加，房室交界区传导加速。但若切断双侧迷走神经后再给予阿托品，心脏的变化为
A 心率明显增快
B 心率明显降低
C 心率无明显变化
D 房室传导明显增快
E 房室传导明显减慢
87 静脉注射去甲肾上腺素后出现血压升高，心率减慢, 后者出现的主要原因是
A. 去甲肾上腺素对心脏的抑制作用
B. 去甲肾上腺素对血管的抑制作用
C. 降压反射活动加强
D. 降压反射活动减弱
E. 大脑皮层心血管中枢活动减弱
88 给家兔静脉给予小剂量的肾上腺素后心率增快,心肌收缩增强,但平均动脉压 变化不大,这是因为肾上腺素
A 强列兴奋降压反射
B 通过β受体扩张全身血管
C 通过扩张骨骼肌血管
D 无缩血管效 应
E 不兴奋受体
89 某人出现血钠升高，血钾下降，全身血容量增加，血压升高，此时最可能的原因是
A. 糖皮质激素增加
B. 甲状腺激素增加
C. 激肽系统加强
D. 肾素-血管紧张素系统活动加强
E. 交感-肾上腺髓质活动加强
90 在离体实验中观察到，乙酰胆碱作用于内皮完整的血管，引起血管舒张，若将血管内 皮去除，则乙酰胆碱使 血管收缩，这表明乙酰胆碱可使血管内皮产生
A. 内皮舒张因子
B. 内皮缩血管因子
C. 去甲肾上腺素
D. 肾上腺素
E. 组胺
9 1 一般情况下，左心室在收缩期的血流量约为舒张期的20%~30%，可见影响冠脉血流量的主要因素是
A. 脉压大小
B. 平均动脉压高低
C. 心脏搏出量多少
D. 舒张压的高低和心舒期的长短
E . 收缩压的高低和射血期的长
92 安静状态下，由于耗氧量大，以致其动脉血和静脉血的含氧量差值最大的器官是
A. 心脏
B. 脑
C. 肝脏
D. 肾脏
E. 脾脏
【B1型题】
题93~96
A Na+ 内流
B Ca2+内流
C K+外流
D Cl- 内流
E Mg2+内流
93 心室肌细胞0期除极是由于
94 窦房结细胞0期除极是由于
95 心室肌细胞3期复极是由于
96 窦房结细胞3期复极是由于
题97~99
A 窦房结
B 心房肌
C 房室交界
D 末梢浦肯野纤维
E 房室束
97 自律性最高的部位是
98 传导速度最慢的部位是
99 传导速度最快的部位是
题100~102
A P波
B QRS波群
C T波
D P-R间期
E ST段
100 可反映左右心房除极过程的是
101 可反映左右心室除极过程的是
102 可反映左右心室复极过程的是
题103~ 105
A 等容收缩相
B 等容舒张相
C 快速充盈相
D 减慢射血相
E 快速射血相
103 左心室内压上升速度最快是在
104 左心室容积下降速度最快是在
105 左心室内压下降速度最快是在
题106~109
A. 收缩压
B. 舒张压
C. 脉压
D. 平均动脉压
E. 中心静脉压
106 在一个心动周期中，动脉血压的最高值称为
107 在一个心动周期中，动脉血压的平均值称为
108 右心房或胸腔大静脉内的血压称为
109 收缩压与舒张压之差称为
题110~112
A. 血浆胶体渗透压降低
B. 毛细血管血压升高
C. 组织液胶体渗透压降低
D. 组织液静水压降低
E. 毛细血管、微静脉增加管壁通透性
110 重度营养不良引起水肿的主要原因是
111 右心衰引起水肿的原因是
112 过敏反应时组织水肿的原因是
题113~114
A. 等容收缩相
B. 等容舒张相
C. 舒张晚期
D. 快速射血相
E. 舒张早期
113 冠脉血流量急剧减少是在
114 冠脉血流量达最高峰是在
题115~117
A. 弹性储器血管
B. 阻力血管
C. 交换血管
D. 容量血管
E. 短路血管
115 主动脉属于
116 小动脉属于
117 毛细血管属于
题115~117
A 心力储备
B 收缩期储备
C 舒张期储备
D 心率储备
E 神经调节
118 心率增快使心输出量增大动用了
119 射血分数增大使心输出量增大动用了
120 静脉回心血量增大使心输出量增大动用
试题答案
1.B 2.D 3.A 4.C 5.D 6.E 7.B 8.D 9.E 10.A 11.D 12.B 13.A 14.A 15.E 16 B 17.A 18.C 19.E 20.B 21.C 22.B 23.D 24.A 25.D 26.A 27.D 28.C 29.A 30. A 31.C 32.C 33.D 34.D 35.C 36.D 37.A 38.C 39.B 40.D 41.E 42.B 43.C 44.D 45.D 46.D 47.C 48.E 49.E 50.C 51.D 52.E 53.B 54.C 55. E 56. B 57.E 58.B 59.E 60.B 61.E 62.C 63.B 64.B 65.A 66. E
67. C 68. B 69. D 70.B 71.E 72.D 73.B 74.E 75.C 76. E 77.C 78.A 79.C 80.B 81.D 82.E 83.A 84.B 85.D 86.C 87.C 88.C 89.D 90.A 91.D 92.A 93.A 94.B 95.C 96.C 97.A 98.C 99.D 100.A 101.B 102.C 103.A 104.E 105.B 106.A 107.D 108.E 109.C 110.A 111.B 112.E 113.A 114.D 115.A 116.B 117.C 118.D 119.B 120.C作者: wangshuo1688 时间: 07-1-26 15:14
第五章 呼吸
【A1型题】
⒈ 肺通气的原动力来自
A. 肺内压与胸内压之差
B. 肺内压与大气压之差
C. 肺的弹性回缩
D. 呼吸肌舒缩运动
E. 肺内压周期性变化
⒉ 在下列哪一时相中，肺内压等于大气压
A. 呼气全程
B. 吸气末和呼气末
C. 呼气末和吸气初
D. 吸气全程
E. 呼吸全程
⒊ 胸膜腔内压的数值是
A. 大气压 - 非弹性阻力
B. 大气压 - 弹性阻力
C. 大气压 - 肺表面张力
D. 大气压 - 肺回缩力
E. 大气压 - 肺弹性纤维回位力
⒋ 平静呼气末胸膜腔内压
A. 等于大气压
B. 低于大气压
C. 高于大气压
D. 与吸气中期相等
E. 与吸气末期相等
5. 维持胸膜腔内负压的必要条件是
A. 肺内压高于大气压
B. 肺内压高于胸膜腔内压
C. 胸膜腔密闭
D. 气道内压高于大气压
E .气道跨壁压等于大气压
6. 肺表面活性物质是由肺内哪种细胞合成分泌的
A. 肺泡Ⅰ型上皮细胞
B. 肺泡Ⅱ型上皮细胞
C. 气道上皮细胞
D. 肺成纤维细胞
E. 肺泡巨噬细胞
7. 肺表面活性物质的主要作用是
A.保护肺泡 上皮细胞
B. 增加肺弹性阻力
C. 降低气道阻力
D. 降低肺泡表面张力
E. 降低呼吸膜通透性
8. 肺的弹性阻力表现在
A. 呼吸全程
B. 吸气初
C. 吸气末
D. 呼气初
E. 呼气末
9. 可用于比较成人与婴儿的肺弹性阻力大小的指标是
A. 用力呼气量
B. 肺回缩力
C. 肺回位压
D. 肺顺应性
E. 比顺应性
10. 胸廓向内回位的弹性阻力表现在
A. 深吸气时
B. 深呼气时
C. 平静吸气时
D. 平静呼气时
E. 胸廓处于自然位置时
11. 在下列哪种情况下，肺顺应性增加
A. 肺弹性阻力增加
B. 肺弹性阻力减小
C. 气道阻力增加
D. 气道阻力减小
E. 肺表面活性物质减少
12.平静呼气末肺内的气体量为
A. 肺活量
B. 时间肺活量
C.补呼气量和潮气量
D.补吸气量和余气量
E.功能余气量
13. 最大呼气末存留于肺中的气体量是
A.余气量
B.功能余气量
C.肺泡气量
D.闭合气量
E.补呼气量
14. 反映单位时间内充分发挥全部通气能力所达到的通气量称为
A. 通气储量百分比
B. 最大通气量
C. 用力肺活量
D. 肺泡通气量
E. 深吸气量
15. 肺气肿患者的肺弹性回缩力降低，导致哪项气体量增加
A. 功能余气量
B. 潮气量
C. 肺活量
D.用力肺活量
E. 补吸气量
16.下列哪项能引起呼吸道口径变小
A.交感神经兴奋
B.肽能神经兴奋
C.呼吸道跨壁压减小
D.肺内压降低
E.吸气时
17. 影响气道阻力最重要的因素是
A.气流速度
B.气流形式
C.呼吸时相
D.呼吸道口径
E. 呼吸道长度
18. 决定肺内气体交换方向的主要因素是
A. 气体的分压差
B. 气体的分子量
C .气体的溶解度
D. 气体与血红蛋白亲和力
E . 呼吸膜通透性
19. 体内氧分压最高的部位是
A. 肺泡气
B. 细胞内液
C. 组织液
D. 动脉血
E .静脉血
20. 在单位分压差下, 每分钟通过呼吸膜扩散的某种气体的毫升数称为
A. 肺扩散能力
B. 肺扩散容量
C. 呼吸膜通透性
D. 肺扩散指数
E. 肺通气/血流比
21. 感受动脉血氧分压降低引起肺通气增强最主要的感受器位于
A. 颈动脉体
B. 颈动脉窦
C. 主动脉体
D. 主动脉弓
E. 延髓
22. 通过兴奋中枢化学感受器增强肺通气的有效刺激是
A. 脑脊液H+浓度升高
B. 脑脊液CO2分压升高
C. 脑脊液O2分压降低
D. 动脉血H+浓度升高
E. 动脉血O2分压降低
【A2型题】
23. 男，65岁，有45年吸烟史，主诉气促，尤其呼气困难。门诊诊断为肺气肿。该患者的肺部出现了下列何种情况
A. 功能余气量减少
B. 肺顺应性增加
C. 胸廓顺应性降低
D. 余气减少
E. 肺表面活性物质减少
24. 进入肺泡内的气体，可因血液在肺内分布不均而未全部与血液进行气体交换。没有发生气体交换的这部分肺泡容量，称为
A. 解剖无效腔
B. 生理无效腔
C. 肺泡无效腔
D. 气道无效腔
E. 无效腔
25. 让受试者先用力作深吸气，然后以最快的速度呼出气体，分别测量第1、2、3秒末呼出的气量，计算其所占用力呼气量的百分数 ，分别称为第1、2、3秒的
A. 肺活量
B. 用力肺通气量
C. 时间肺活量
D. 深吸气量
E. 深呼气量
26. 某人解剖无效腔为150ml，正常平静呼吸时潮气量500ml，呼吸频率每分钟12次。今患肺炎，呼吸变浅、加速，若潮气量减半，呼吸频率加倍，其肺泡通气量（L/min）应是下列哪个数据。
A. 1.2
B. 1.6
C. 2.0
D. 2.4
E. 3.6
27. 肺的通气/血流比值反映肺部气体交换的气泵与血泵的匹配情况。如果通气/血流比值增大，表明该受试者肺内出现
A. 解剖无效腔增大
B. 肺泡无效腔增大
C. 解剖动 - 静脉短路
D.功能性动 - 静脉短路
E. 肺内气体交换障碍
28. 人类在空气稀薄、氧分压较低的高原上会出现代偿性呼吸增强。这主要依赖于何种感受器对呼吸中枢的兴奋作用。
A. 中枢化学感受器
B. 主动脉体化学感受器
C. 颈动脉体化学感受器
D. 主动脉弓压力感受器
E. 颈动脉窦压力感受器
29. 在人, 平静呼吸时，肺扩张反射不参与呼吸调节。在肺充血、肺水肿等病理情况下，由于肺顺应性降低，使肺牵张感受器发放冲动增加而引起该反射，使得
A. 肺通气量增加
B. 气体交换增多
C. 肺泡无效腔减少
D. 呼吸变浅、变快
E. 呼吸加深、变慢
【B1型题】
题30~31
A. 肺内压与胸膜腔内压之差
B. 肺内压与大气压之差
C. 肺回缩力
D. 呼吸肌的舒缩
E .大气压与肺回缩力之差
30. 肺通气的直接动力来自
31. 胸膜腔内压的负值大小取决于
题32~-33
A . 余气量
B 肺活量
C 功能余气量
D 用力肺活量
E 补呼气量
32. 呼吸肌完全松弛时的肺容量等于
33. 对肺泡气中的O2和CO2分压的过度变化起缓冲作用的是
题34~35
A. 肺弹性阻力
B. 胸廓弹性阻力+
C. 气道阻力
D. 惯性阻力
E. 粘滞阻力
34 . 肺顺应性是反映何种阻力的指标
35. 推动单位时间内气体流量所需的呼吸道两端的压力差反映了
第八章 尿的生成和排出
〔A1型题〕
1 可分泌肾素的结构是肾脏的
A 致密斑
B 系膜细胞
C 间质细胞
D 颗粒细胞
E 感受器细胞
2 肾脏致密斑的作用是直接感受
A 肾血管血压变化
B 肾血流NaCl含量变化
C 肾小管内压变化
D 肾小管液NaCl含量变化
E 入球小动脉牵张刺激
3 肾脏的基本功能单位是
A 肾小球
B 肾小体
C 肾小管
D 集合管
E 肾单位
4 肾脏血液供应的特点是
A 血流量小
B 血流分布均匀
C 肾小管 周围毛细血管内血压高
D 肾小球毛细血管内血压高
E 肾血流量易随全身血压波动而变化
5 最易通过肾小球滤过膜的物质是
A 带负电的小分子
B 带正电的小分子
C 电中性的小分子
D 带正电的大分子
E 带负电的大分子
6 促进肾小球滤过的动力是
A 肾小球毛细血管血压
B 囊内液体胶体渗透压
C 血浆胶体渗透压
D 囊内压
E 全身动脉压
7 肾血流量与全身血液循环相配合主要靠下列哪项来调节
A 自身调节
B 神经体液调节
C 负反馈调节
D 正反馈调节
E 前馈调节
8 下列哪种情况可导致肾小球滤过率增高
A 肾交感神经兴奋
B 注射大量肾上腺素
C 快速静脉滴注生理盐水
D 静脉滴注高渗葡萄糖液
E 注射抗利尿激素
9 静脉滴注生理盐水引起肾小球滤过率增加是由于
A 肾小球毛细血管压增高
B 肾内压下降
C 血浆胶渗压增高
D 肾血浆流量增多
E 囊内液胶渗压下降
10 交感神经兴奋时肾小球滤过率下降是由于
A 平均动脉压降低
B 滤过膜通透性降低
C 囊内压升高
D 血浆胶体渗透压增高
E 肾血浆流量降低
11 肾小球滤过率是指每分钟
A 一个肾单位生成的原尿量
B 一个肾脏生成的原尿量
C 两肾生成的原尿量
D 两肾生成的终尿量
E 一个肾脏生成的终尿量
12 滤过分数指下列哪一项的比值
A 肾小球滤过率/肾血浆流量
B 肾血浆流量/肾血流量
C 肾血流量/肾血浆流量
D 肾小球滤过率/肾血流量
E 肾血流量/心输出量
13 肾炎患者出现蛋白尿是由于
A 肾小球滤过率增高
B 肾血浆流量增大
C 血浆蛋白浓度增高
D 肾小球滤过膜面积增大
E 滤过膜上带负电荷的糖蛋白减少或消失
14 近球小管重吸收的关键动力是
A 基侧膜上的Na+ 泵
B 管腔膜上的同向转运
C 管腔膜上的逆向转运
D 管腔膜上的电中性转运
E 管腔膜 上的生电性转运
15 下列哪项属于被动转运
A 水从低渗透压侧至高渗透压一侧
B Na+ 从低浓度侧至高浓度侧
C 葡萄糖从低浓度侧至高浓度侧
D 氨基酸从低浓度侧至高浓度侧
E 蛋白质进入细胞
16 抑制近球小管的Na+ -H +交换不引起
A Na+ 排出增多
B Cl-排出增多
C 水排出增多
D HCO3-排出增多
E 葡萄糖排出增多
17 肾脏对葡萄糖的重吸收发生于
A 近球小管
B 髓袢
C 远球小管
D 集合管
E 各段肾小管
18 近球小管对小管液的重吸收为
A 低渗重吸收
B 等渗重吸收
C 高渗重吸收
D 受抗利尿激素的调节
E 受醛固酮的调节
19 肾糖阈是指
A 尿中开始出现葡萄糖时的血糖浓度
B 肾小球开始滤过葡萄糖时的血糖浓度
C 肾小管开始吸收葡萄糖的血糖浓度
D 肾小管吸收葡萄糖的最大能力
E 肾小球开始滤过葡萄糖的临界尿糖浓度 20 肾小管对HCO-3的重吸收
A 以HCO3-的形式吸收
B 以CO2的形式吸收
C 主要在远球小管进行
D 滞后于Cl-的吸收
E 不依赖于H+的分泌
21 肾小管对H+的分泌增加不引起
A Na+ 吸收增加
B HCO3-重吸收增加
C NH3分泌增加
D K+分泌增加
E H2PO4-排出增加
22 髓质高渗梯度建立的主要动力是
A 近球小管对NaCl的主动重吸收
B 髓袢升支粗段对NaCl的主动重吸收
C 远球小管、集合管对NaCl的主动重吸收
D 髓袢升支粗段对尿素的主动重吸收
E 远球小管、集合管对尿素的主动重吸收
23 肾脏外髓部渗透梯度的形成主要依赖于
A 近球小管对NaCl的重吸收
* B 髓袢升支粗段对NaCl的重吸收
C 远球小管对NaCl的重吸收
D 集合管对NaCl的重吸收
E 集合管对尿素的重吸收
24 肾脏内髓部渗透梯度的形成主要依赖于
A NaCl
B 尿素
* C NaCl和尿素
D KCl
E NaCl和KCl
25 代谢性酸中毒常伴有高血钾是由于肾小管
A H+-Na+交换增强
B H+-Na+交换增强
* C H+-Na+交换减弱
D K+重吸收增强
E NH4+-K+交换减弱
26 剧烈运动时尿量减少的主要原因是
A 体循环动脉血压下降
B 醛固酮分泌增多
C 肾血流量减少
D 血浆胶体渗透压升高
E 肾小管对水重吸收增加
27 高血钾引起代谢性碱中毒是由于肾小管
A H+-Na+交换增强
B H+-K+交换增强
C K+-Na+交换减弱
D HCO3-重吸收增强
E NH4+-K+交换减弱
28 球管平衡是指
A 近球小管对滤过液的重吸收率为65%~70%
B 肾小球滤过率等于肾小管吸收率
C 肾小管的重吸收率为65%~70%
D 肾小球滤过率随肾小管吸收率而变化
E 以上都不是
29 抗利尿激素的主要作用是
* A 提高远曲小管和集合管对水的通透性
B 增强髓袢升支粗段对NaCl的主动重吸收
C 提高内髓部集合管对尿素的通透性
D 促进近球小管对水的重吸收
E 保Na+、排K+、保水
30 下列可抑制抗利尿激素分泌的因素是
A 心钠素
B 血管 紧张素Ⅱ
C 血浆晶体渗透压升高
D 血压降低
E 大量出汗
31 大量饮清水后引起尿量增多的主要原因是
A 抗利尿激素分泌减少
B 肾小球滤过率增大
C 动脉血压升高
D 近球小管渗透压增高
E 血管紧张素Ⅱ减少
32 大量饮清水后抗利尿激素分泌减少主要是由于
A 血量增多
B 动脉血压增高
C 血浆晶体渗透压降低
D 血管紧张素Ⅱ减少
E 心钠素增多
33 肾素-血管紧张素系统激活时
A 醛固酮分泌减少
B 抗利尿激素分泌减少
C 肾上腺素分泌减少
D 肾脏NaCl排出减少
E 肾小球滤过率增大
34 致密斑感受器直接感受下列哪项变化
A 肾小球滤过率
B 流经致密斑的钠量
C 循环血量
D 动脉血压
E 血K+
35 可致肾素分泌增多的因素是
* A 入球小动脉压降低
B 交感神经活动降低
C 血Na+降低
D 血K+升高
E 致密斑活动降低
36 醛固酮可促进肾小管
A Na+重吸收减少
B K+重吸收增加
C 水重吸收减少
D Cl-重吸收减少
* E K+排出增加
37 可促进醛固酮分泌的因素是
A 血管紧张素Ⅱ增多
B 血Na+增多
C 血K+降低
D 血量增多
E 血压升高
38 正常终尿约占肾小球滤过液量的
A 1%
B 5%
C 10%
D 15%
E 20%
【A2型题】
39 某慢性低氧血症患者出现代谢性酸中毒和高钾血症，
但血压正常。分析该患者血钾增高的原因是由于
A 肾小管K+-Na+交换减弱
B 肾小管K+-H+交换增加
C 肾小管Na+重吸收减少
D 肾小球滤过率降低
E 近球小管K+重吸收增多
40 某患者服用碳酸酐酶抑制剂乙酰唑胺后出现尿液NaCl、
水、HCO3-排出增多以及代谢性酸中毒。分析该患者出
现代谢性酸中毒是由于
A 肾小管H+-Na+交换减弱
B 肾小管K+-H+交换增加
C 近球小管K+的吸收增加
D 肾小球滤过率降低
E 肾小管Na+重吸收减少
41 给某患者静脉注射20%葡萄糖50 ml，患者尿量显著增加，
尿糖定性阳性。分析该患者尿量增多的主要原因是
A 肾小管对水的通透性降低
B 肾小球滤过率增大
C 肾小管溶质浓度增加
D 肾小管对Na+吸收减少
E 血容量增大
42 某患者服用对髓袢升支粗段NaCl主动重吸收有抑制作用的 速尿后，尿量增多，尿渗透压下降，该患者排低渗尿的原 因是远曲小管、集合管
A 对Na+主动重吸收减少
B 对Cl-主动吸收减少
C 对水的通透性降低
D 管腔外渗透压梯度降低
E 管腔内溶质浓度增加
43 给家兔静脉注射抗利尿激素后尿量减少，尿液渗透压增高。该动物尿量减少的主要机制是远曲小管和集合管
A 对水通透性增高
B 对Na+重吸收增多
C 对尿素重吸收增多
D 管腔内溶质浓度降低
E 管腔外渗透压升高
44 给家兔静脉注射去甲肾上腺素后血压升高，肾小球滤过率和尿量迅速减少，该动物肾小球滤过率降低的主要原因是
A 肾小球毛细血管血压升高
B 肾小囊内压升高
C 肾小囊内液胶体渗透压降低
D 血浆胶体渗透夜升高
E 肾血流量减少
45 已知菊粉可经肾小球自由滤过，但不被肾小管重吸收和分泌。给某人静脉注射菊粉后，肾脏每分钟可将125ml血浆中的菊粉完全清除，该值等于
A 肾小球滤过率
B 肾血流量
C 肾血浆流量
D 肾小管分泌率
E 肾小管重吸收率
46 已知碘锐特在流经肾循环后可被完全清除，肾静脉中该物质 浓度为零。给某人静脉滴注碘锐特后肾脏每分钟可将660ml血浆中的碘锐特完全清除，该数值等于
A 肾小球滤过率
B 肾血流量
C 肾血浆流量
D 肾小管分泌率
E 肾小管重吸收率
47 经测定某患者的尿素清除率为70ml/min，菊粉清除率为125ml/min，两者有差异表明该患者
A 肾功能减退
B 肾小球滤过率降低
C 肾小管可以吸收尿素
D 肾小管重吸收功能降低
E 肾小管重吸收功能增强
48 某患者脊髓腰段横断外伤后出现尿失禁，其机制是
A 脊髓初级排尿中枢损伤
B 初级排尿中枢与大脑皮质失去联系
C 排尿反射传入神经受损
D 排尿反射传出神经受损
E 膀胱平滑肌功能障碍
49 某外伤患者大出血后血压降低到60/40mmHg,尿量明显减少的原因主要是
A 肾小球毛细血管压降低
B 肾小囊内压升高
C 肾血浆胶体渗透压增高
D 滤过膜面积减小
E 滤过膜通透性降低
【B1型题】
题50~53
A 菊粉
B 葡萄糖
C 尿素
D 碘锐特
E NaCl
50 用于测量肾小球滤过率的物质是
51 用于测量肾血浆流量的物质是
52 血浆清除率为零的物质是
53 血浆清除率最高的物质是
题54~56
A 水利尿
B 渗透性利尿
C 尿崩症
D 尿失禁
E 尿潴留
54 一次饮用大量清水导致尿量增多称为
55 下丘脑视上核受损引起
56 静脉滴注甘露醇引起
题57~59
A 抗利尿激素
B 醛固酮
C 肾上腺素
D 血管紧张素Ⅱ
E 肾素
57 调节远曲小管、集合管对水重吸收的主要因素是
58 调节远曲小管、集合管对Na+重吸收的主要因素是
59 可刺激醛固酮分泌的主要是
试题答案
1.D 2.D 3.E 4.D 5.B 6.A 7.B 8.C 9.D 10.E 11.C 12.A 13.E 14.A 15.A 16.E 17.A 18.B 19.A 20.B 21.D 22.B 23.B 24.C 25.C 26.C 27.C 28.A 29.A 30.A 31.A 32.C 33.D 34.B 35.A 36.E 37.A 38.A 39.A 40.A 41.C 42.D 43.A 44.E 45.A 46.A 47.C 48.B 49.A 50.A 51.D 52.A 53.C 54.B 55. A 56. B 57. A 58. B 59. D作者: wangshuo1688 时间: 07-1-26 15:16
第八章 尿的生成和排出
〔A1型题〕
1 可分泌肾素的结构是肾脏的
A 致密斑
B 系膜细胞
C 间质细胞
D 颗粒细胞
E 感受器细胞
2 肾脏致密斑的作用是直接感受
A 肾血管血压变化
B 肾血流NaCl含量变化
C 肾小管内压变化
D 肾小管液NaCl含量变化
E 入球小动脉牵张刺激
3 肾脏的基本功能单位是
A 肾小球
B 肾小体
C 肾小管
D 集合管
E 肾单位
4 肾脏血液供应的特点是
A 血流量小
B 血流分布均匀
C 肾小管 周围毛细血管内血压高
D 肾小球毛细血管内血压高
E 肾血流量易随全身血压波动而变化
5 最易通过肾小球滤过膜的物质是
A 带负电的小分子
B 带正电的小分子
C 电中性的小分子
D 带正电的大分子
E 带负电的大分子
6 促进肾小球滤过的动力是
A 肾小球毛细血管血压
B 囊内液体胶体渗透压
C 血浆胶体渗透压
D 囊内压
E 全身动脉压
7 肾血流量与全身血液循环相配合主要靠下列哪项来调节
A 自身调节
B 神经体液调节
C 负反馈调节
D 正反馈调节
E 前馈调节
8 下列哪种情况可导致肾小球滤过率增高
A 肾交感神经兴奋
B 注射大量肾上腺素
C 快速静脉滴注生理盐水
D 静脉滴注高渗葡萄糖液
E 注射抗利尿激素
9 静脉滴注生理盐水引起肾小球滤过率增加是由于
A 肾小球毛细血管压增高
B 肾内压下降
C 血浆胶渗压增高
D 肾血浆流量增多
E 囊内液胶渗压下降
10 交感神经兴奋时肾小球滤过率下降是由于
A 平均动脉压降低
B 滤过膜通透性降低
C 囊内压升高
D 血浆胶体渗透压增高
E 肾血浆流量降低
11 肾小球滤过率是指每分钟
A 一个肾单位生成的原尿量
B 一个肾脏生成的原尿量
C 两肾生成的原尿量
D 两肾生成的终尿量
E 一个肾脏生成的终尿量
12 滤过分数指下列哪一项的比值
A 肾小球滤过率/肾血浆流量
B 肾血浆流量/肾血流量
C 肾血流量/肾血浆流量
D 肾小球滤过率/肾血流量
E 肾血流量/心输出量
13 肾炎患者出现蛋白尿是由于
A 肾小球滤过率增高
B 肾血浆流量增大
C 血浆蛋白浓度增高
D 肾小球滤过膜面积增大
E 滤过膜上带负电荷的糖蛋白减少或消失
14 近球小管重吸收的关键动力是
A 基侧膜上的Na+ 泵
B 管腔膜上的同向转运
C 管腔膜上的逆向转运
D 管腔膜上的电中性转运
E 管腔膜 上的生电性转运
15 下列哪项属于被动转运
A 水从低渗透压侧至高渗透压一侧
B Na+ 从低浓度侧至高浓度侧
C 葡萄糖从低浓度侧至高浓度侧
D 氨基酸从低浓度侧至高浓度侧
E 蛋白质进入细胞
16 抑制近球小管的Na+ -H +交换不引起
A Na+ 排出增多
B Cl-排出增多
C 水排出增多
D HCO3-排出增多
E 葡萄糖排出增多
17 肾脏对葡萄糖的重吸收发生于
A 近球小管
B 髓袢
C 远球小管
D 集合管
E 各段肾小管
18 近球小管对小管液的重吸收为
A 低渗重吸收
B 等渗重吸收
C 高渗重吸收
D 受抗利尿激素的调节
E 受醛固酮的调节
19 肾糖阈是指
A 尿中开始出现葡萄糖时的血糖浓度
B 肾小球开始滤过葡萄糖时的血糖浓度
C 肾小管开始吸收葡萄糖的血糖浓度
D 肾小管吸收葡萄糖的最大能力
E 肾小球开始滤过葡萄糖的临界尿糖浓度
20 肾小管对HCO-3的重吸收
A 以HCO3-的形式吸收
B 以CO2的形式吸收
C 主要在远球小管进行
D 滞后于Cl-的吸收
E 不依赖于H+的分泌
21 肾小管对H+的分泌增加不引起
A Na+ 吸收增加
B HCO3-重吸收增加
C NH3分泌增加
D K+分泌增加
E H2PO4-排出增加
22 髓质高渗梯度建立的主要动力是
A 近球小管对NaCl的主动重吸收
B 髓袢升支粗段对NaCl的主动重吸收
C 远球小管、集合管对NaCl的主动重吸收
D 髓袢升支粗段对尿素的主动重吸收
E 远球小管、集合管对尿素的主动重吸收
23 肾脏外髓部渗透梯度的形成主要依赖于
A 近球小管对NaCl的重吸收
* B 髓袢升支粗段对NaCl的重吸收
C 远球小管对NaCl的重吸收
D 集合管对NaCl的重吸收
E 集合管对尿素的重吸收
24 肾脏内髓部渗透梯度的形成主要依赖于
A NaCl
B 尿素
* C NaCl和尿素
D KCl
E NaCl和KCl
25 代谢性酸中毒常伴有高血钾是由于肾小管
A H+-Na+交换增强
B H+-Na+交换增强
* C H+-Na+交换减弱
D K+重吸收增强
E NH4+-K+交换减弱
26 剧烈运动时尿量减少的主要原因是
A 体循环动脉血压下降
B 醛固酮分泌增多
C 肾血流量减少
D 血浆胶体渗透压升高
E 肾小管对水重吸收增加
27 高血钾引起代谢性碱中毒是由于肾小管
A H+-Na+交换增强
B H+-K+交换增强
C K+-Na+交换减弱
D HCO3-重吸收增强
E NH4+-K+交换减弱
28 球管平衡是指
A 近球小管对滤过液的重吸收率为65%~70%
B 肾小球滤过率等于肾小管吸收率
C 肾小管的重吸收率为65%~70%
D 肾小球滤过率随肾小管吸收率而变化
E 以上都不是
29 抗利尿激素的主要作用是
* A 提高远曲小管和集合管对水的通透性
B 增强髓袢升支粗段对NaCl的主动重吸收
C 提高内髓部集合管对尿素的通透性
D 促进近球小管对水的重吸收
E 保Na+、排K+、保水
30 下列可抑制抗利尿激素分泌的因素是
A 心钠素
B 血管 紧张素Ⅱ
C 血浆晶体渗透压升高
D 血压降低
E 大量出汗
31 大量饮清水后引起尿量增多的主要原因是
A 抗利尿激素分泌减少
B 肾小球滤过率增大
C 动脉血压升高
D 近球小管渗透压增高
E 血管紧张素Ⅱ减少
32 大量饮清水后抗利尿激素分泌减少主要是由于
A 血量增多
B 动脉血压增高
C 血浆晶体渗透压降低
D 血管紧张素Ⅱ减少
E 心钠素增多
33 肾素-血管紧张素系统激活时
A 醛固酮分泌减少
B 抗利尿激素分泌减少
C 肾上腺素分泌减少
D 肾脏NaCl排出减少
E 肾小球滤过率增大
34 致密斑感受器直接感受下列哪项变化
A 肾小球滤过率
B 流经致密斑的钠量
C 循环血量
D 动脉血压
E 血K+
35 可致肾素分泌增多的因素是
* A 入球小动脉压降低
B 交感神经活动降低
C 血Na+降低
D 血K+升高
E 致密斑活动降低
36 醛固酮可促进肾小管
A Na+重吸收减少
B K+重吸收增加
C 水重吸收减少
D Cl-重吸收减少
* E K+排出增加
37 可促进醛固酮分泌的因素是
A 血管紧张素Ⅱ增多
B 血Na+增多
C 血K+降低
D 血量增多
E 血压升高
38 正常终尿约占肾小球滤过液量的
A 1%
B 5%
C 10%
D 15%
E 20%
【A2型题】
39 某慢性低氧血症患者出现代谢性酸中毒和高钾血症，
但血压正常。分析该患者血钾增高的原因是由于
A 肾小管K+-Na+交换减弱
B 肾小管K+-H+交换增加
C 肾小管Na+重吸收减少
D 肾小球滤过率降低
E 近球小管K+重吸收增多
40 某患者服用碳酸酐酶抑制剂乙酰唑胺后出现尿液NaCl、
水、HCO3-排出增多以及代谢性酸中毒。分析该患者出
现代谢性酸中毒是由于
A 肾小管H+-Na+交换减弱
B 肾小管K+-H+交换增加
C 近球小管K+的吸收增加
D 肾小球滤过率降低
E 肾小管Na+重吸收减少
41 给某患者静脉注射20%葡萄糖50 ml，患者尿量显著增加，
尿糖定性阳性。分析该患者尿量增多的主要原因是
A 肾小管对水的通透性降低
B 肾小球滤过率增大
C 肾小管溶质浓度增加
D 肾小管对Na+吸收减少
E 血容量增大
42 某患者服用对髓袢升支粗段NaCl主动重吸收有抑制作用的 速尿后，尿量增多，尿渗透压下降，该患者排低渗尿的原 因是远曲小管、集合管
A 对Na+主动重吸收减少
B 对Cl-主动吸收减少
C 对水的通透性降低
D 管腔外渗透压梯度降低
E 管腔内溶质浓度增加
43 给家兔静脉注射抗利尿激素后尿量减少，尿液渗透压增高。该动物尿量减少的主要机制是远曲小管和集合管
A 对水通透性增高
B 对Na+重吸收增多
C 对尿素重吸收增多
D 管腔内溶质浓度降低
E 管腔外渗透压升高
44 给家兔静脉注射去甲肾上腺素后血压升高，肾小球滤过率和尿量迅速减少，该动物肾小球滤过率降低的主要原因是
A 肾小球毛细血管血压升高
B 肾小囊内压升高
C 肾小囊内液胶体渗透压降低
D 血浆胶体渗透夜升高
E 肾血流量减少
45 已知菊粉可经肾小球自由滤过，但不被肾小管重吸收和分泌。给某人静脉注射菊粉后，肾脏每分钟可将125ml血浆中的菊粉完全清除，该值等于
A 肾小球滤过率
B 肾血流量
C 肾血浆流量
D 肾小管分泌率
E 肾小管重吸收率
46 已知碘锐特在流经肾循环后可被完全清除，肾静脉中该物质 浓度为零。给某人静脉滴注碘锐特后肾脏每分钟可将660ml血浆中的碘锐特完全清除，该数值等于
A 肾小球滤过率
B 肾血流量
C 肾血浆流量
D 肾小管分泌率
E 肾小管重吸收率
47 经测定某患者的尿素清除率为70ml/min，菊粉清除率为125ml/min，两者有差异表明该患者
A 肾功能减退
B 肾小球滤过率降低
C 肾小管可以吸收尿素
D 肾小管重吸收功能降低
E 肾小管重吸收功能增强
48 某患者脊髓腰段横断外伤后出现尿失禁，其机制是
A 脊髓初级排尿中枢损伤
B 初级排尿中枢与大脑皮质失去联系
C 排尿反射传入神经受损
D 排尿反射传出神经受损
E 膀胱平滑肌功能障碍
49 某外伤患者大出血后血压降低到60/40mmHg,尿量明显减少的原因主要是
A 肾小球毛细血管压降低
B 肾小囊内压升高
C 肾血浆胶体渗透压增高
D 滤过膜面积减小
E 滤过膜通透性降低
【B1型题】
题50~53
A 菊粉
B 葡萄糖
C 尿素
D 碘锐特
E NaCl
50 用于测量肾小球滤过率的物质是
51 用于测量肾血浆流量的物质是
52 血浆清除率为零的物质是
53 血浆清除率最高的物质是
题54~56
A 水利尿
B 渗透性利尿
C 尿崩症
D 尿失禁
E 尿潴留
54 一次饮用大量清水导致尿量增多称为
55 下丘脑视上核受损引起
56 静脉滴注甘露醇引起
题57~59
A 抗利尿激素
B 醛固酮
C 肾上腺素
D 血管紧张素Ⅱ
E 肾素
57 调节远曲小管、集合管对水重吸收的主要因素是
58 调节远曲小管、集合管对Na+重吸收的主要因素是
59 可刺激醛固酮分泌的主要是
试题答案
1.D 2.D 3.E 4.D 5.B 6.A 7.B 8.C 9.D 10.E 11.C 12.A 13.E 14.A 15.A 16.E 17.A 18.B 19.A 20.B 21.D 22.B 23.B 24.C 25.C 26.C 27.C 28.A 29.A 30.A 31.A 32.C 33.D 34.B 35.A 36.E 37.A 38.A 39.A 40.A 41.C 42.D 43.A 44.E 45.A 46.A 47.C 48.B 49.A 50.A 51.D 52.A 53.C 54.B 55. A 56. B 57. A 58. B 59. D作者: wangshuo1688 时间: 07-1-26 15:16
第九章 感觉器官
【A1型题】
1 专门感受机体内、外环境变化的结构或装置称为
A 受体
B 感受器
C 分析器
D 感觉器官
E 特殊器官
2 下列哪种感受器属于快适应感受器
A 肌梭
B 痛觉感受器
C 皮肤触觉感受器
D 视网膜感光细胞
E 颈动脉窦压力感受器
3 各种感受器均各有其最敏感、最容易接受的刺激形式，称为感受器的
A 阈值
B 阈刺激
C 感觉阈值
* D 适宜刺激
E 适宜强度
4 在眼的折光系统中，折光力可被调节的结构是
A 角膜
B 房水
C 晶状体
D 玻璃体
E 巩膜
5 在眼的折光系统中，折射能力最大的界面是
A 空气-角膜前表面
B 角膜后表面-房水
C 房水-晶状体前表面
D 晶状体后表面-玻璃体
E 玻璃体-视网膜
6 睫状肌收缩使悬韧带放松，可引起
A 角膜曲度增加
B 角膜曲度减小
C 晶状体曲度增加
D 晶状体曲度减小
E 玻璃体曲度增加
7 以下关于眼的调节的叙述，哪一项是错误的
A 是神经反射
B 使晶状体变凸
C 使瞳孔缩小
D 使两眼视轴向鼻侧会聚
E 增加折光系统的球面像差和色像差
8 眼经过充分发挥调节作用能够看清眼前物体的最近点，称为
A 主点
B 节点
C 近点
D 远点
E 焦点
9 发生老视的主要原因是
A 角膜曲率变小
B 角膜透明度减小
C 房水循环受阻
D 晶状体弹性减弱
E 晶状体厚度增加
10 以下关于瞳孔对光反射的叙述，哪一项是错误的
A 感受器在视网膜
B 传入纤维在视神经中
C 中枢在中脑
D 效应器主要是睫状肌
E 有双侧互感反应
11 视网膜上只有视锥细胞而没有视杆细胞分布的部位是
A 黄斑中央凹
B 视神经乳头
C 视网膜中心
D 视网膜周边
E 视网膜颞侧
12 视杆细胞中的感光色素是
A 视蛋白
B 视黄醛
C 视紫红质
D 视紫蓝质
E 视色素
13 产生夜盲症的原因是
A 视蛋白合成障碍
B 视黄醛合成过多
C 视紫红质缺乏
D 视紫蓝质缺乏
E 维生素E供应不足
14 暗适应的产生机制主要与视网膜哪种细胞中的视紫红质的合成增强有关
A 视锥细胞
B 视杆细胞
C 双极细胞
D 水平细胞
E 无长突细胞
15 视黄醛被消耗后需要哪种维生素来补充
A 维生素A
B 维生素B
C 维生素C
D 维生素D
E 维生素E
16 三原色学说设想在视网膜中存在对三种色光特别敏感的三种视锥细胞
A 蓝、绿、白
B 红、绿、白
C 红、绿、黄
D 蓝、绿、红
E 蓝、绿、黄
17 耳蜗内淋巴所在的部位是
A 蜗管
B 鼓阶
C 鼓室
D 前庭阶
E 咽鼓管
18 微音器电位是
A 感受器电位
B 静息电位
C 锋电位
D 后电位
E 突触后电位
19 声波振动最终在耳蜗中由机械能转为电变化的关键步骤是螺旋器部位
A 盖膜振动
B 内淋巴振动
C 外淋巴振动
D 毛细胞变形
E 毛细胞听纤毛弯曲
20 前庭器官指
A 球囊
B 椭圆囊
C 半规管
D 半规管和壶腹
E 半规管、椭圆囊和球囊
21 能感受人体以身体长轴为轴所作的旋转变速运动的装置是
A 垂直半规管
* B 水平半规管
C 椭圆囊
D 球囊
E 囊斑
22 位于椭圆囊和球囊的囊斑结构中的毛细胞的适宜刺激是
A 角匀速运动
B 负角加速运动
C 正角加速运动
D 人体各种方向的直线匀速运动
E 人体各种方向的直线变速运动
23 在下列人类能分辨的味道中，哪一项不属于基本味觉
A 甜
B 酸
C 苦
D 辣
E 咸
24 下列哪种感觉不属于皮肤感觉
A 触觉
B 痛觉
C 位置觉
D 冷觉
E 温觉
25 半规管内毛细胞的适宜刺激是
A 内淋巴位移
B 外淋巴位移
C 直线加速运动
D 旋转加速运动
E 旋转变速运动
【A2型题】
26 当刺激感受器时，刺激虽仍持续，但传入纤维上的冲动频率却已开始下降。这种现象称为感受器的
A 疲劳
B 抑制
C 适应
D 阻滞
E 衰减
27 安静状态下，眼的折光系统正好把6米以外的物体成像在视网膜之后。来自近于6米的物体的光线经折射后将成像在视网膜上。但正常眼在看近物时也很清楚。这是由于眼在看近物时发生了
A 适应
B 调节反射
C 瞳孔缩小
D 悬韧带放松
E 晶状体弹性变化
28 视网膜接受光刺激，由感光细胞产生的电信号经过复杂的细胞网络传递，最后在哪种细胞产生动作电位传向中枢
A 水平细胞
B 双极细胞
C 无长突细胞
D 神经节细胞
E 节后神经原
29 单眼固定的注视前方不动，此时该眼所能看到的范围称为视野。在同一光照条件下，下列哪种颜色的视野最大
A 红色
B 黄色
C 蓝色
D 绿色
E 白色
30 中耳包括鼓膜、鼓室、听骨链、听小肌和咽鼓管等结构，当声波经过鼓膜和中耳听骨链的传递时，产生了
A 共振作用
B 增压效应
C 能量消耗
D 减压效应
E 增幅效应
31 飞机下降时，若感到鼓膜疼痛，应作吞咽动作，通过咽鼓管使鼓室内压与下列哪项结构的压力之间取得平衡
A 内耳
B 鼻咽部
C 蜗管
D 前庭阶
E 鼓阶
32 声波振动通过听骨链到达卵圆窗膜，压力变化传给耳蜗内液体，引起基底膜振动，基底膜振动以行波方式传播。当耳蜗顶部受损时主要影响
A 低频听力
B 中频听力
C 高频听力
D 低强度听力
E 高强度听力
33 某儿童在游乐园坐旋转椅游玩时，突然出现恶心、呕吐、眩晕、皮肤苍白等现象，分析最可能的原因是产生了
A 低血压
B 低血糖
C 脑缺血
D 低血钙
E 前庭自主神经性反应
【B1型题】
题34~36
A 肌梭
B 螺旋器
C 视锥细胞
D 视杆细胞
E 游离神经末梢
34 感受肌肉长度变化的感受器是
35 感受听觉的感受器是
36 感受昼光觉的感光细胞是
题37~40
A 正视眼
B 近视眼
C 远视眼
D 老视眼
E 散光眼
37 因眼球前后径过长而导致眼的折光能力异常，称为
38 因晶状体弹性减弱使视近物时调节能力下降，称为
39 因角膜球面不同方向的曲率不同所造成的视物不清，称为
40 平行光线可聚焦在视网膜上，但视近物需要眼进行调节活动，
称为
题41~42
A 16-100Hz
B 100-1000Hz
C 1000-3000Hz
D 16-20000Hz
E 2000-10000Hz
41 正常人耳能感受的空气振动频率范围是
42 在音频范围内，人耳最敏感的振动频率范围是
题43~45
A 感音性耳聋
B 传音性耳聋
C 中枢性耳聋
D 高频听力受损
E 低频听力受损
43 鼓膜穿孔可导致
44 耳蜗底部病变可导致
45 听神经传导阻滞可导致
2 神经元的胞体与轴突之间的物质运输和交换依赖于
A 血液供应
B 细胞外液
C 顺向轴浆流动
D 反向轴浆流动
E 双向轴浆流动
3 神经系统实现其调节功能的基本方式是
A 兴奋和抑制
B 正反馈和负反馈
C 躯体反射和内脏反射
D 条件反射和非条件反射
E 神经内分泌调节和神经免疫调节
4 反射活动后放现象的结构基础是神经元之间的
A 链琐状联系
B 环状联系
C 辐散式联系
D 聚合式联系
E 侧支式联系
5 神经元兴奋时，首先产生动作电位的部位是
A 胞体
B 树突
C 轴突
D 轴突始段
E 树突始段
6 动作电位到达突触前膜引起递质释放与哪种离子的跨膜移动有关
A Ca2+内流
B Ca2+外流
C Na+内流
D Na+外流
E K+外流
7 下列哪项反射活动中存在着正反馈
A 腱反射
B 排尿反射
C 减压反射
D 肺牵张反射
E 对侧伸肌反射
8 神经末梢兴奋与递质释放之间的偶联因子是
A Cl-
B K+
C Na+
D Ca2+
E Mg2+
9 神经元之间除了经典突触联系外还存在电突触，其结构基础是
A 缝隙连接
B 曲张体
C 混合性突触
D 交互性突触
E 串联性突触
10 反射时的长短主要决定于
A 刺激的性质
B 刺激的强度
C 感受器的敏感度
D 神经的传导速度
E 反射 中枢突触的多少
11 由脊髓前角运动神经元与闰绍细胞构成的局部神经元回路所形成的抑制，称为 A 回返性抑制
B 前馈抑制
C 侧支抑制
D 交互抑制
E 突触前抑制
12 突触前抑制产生是由于突触前膜
A 产生超极
B 递质耗竭
C 释放抑制性递质
D 兴奋性递质释放减少
E 抑制性中间神经元兴奋
13 突触前抑制的结构基础是哪一类型的突触
A 胞体-胞体型
B 胞体-树突型
C 轴突-胞体型
D 轴突-轴突型
E 轴突-树突型
14 兴奋性突触后电位是突触后膜对什么离子的通透性增加而引起的
A K+和Ca2+
B Na+ 和K+，尤其是K+
C Na+和K+，尤其是Na+
D Na+和 Ca2+
E Cl-
15 抑制性突触后电位
A 是去极化局部电位
* B 是超极化局部电位
C 具有全或无特征
D 是突触前膜递质释放减少所致
E 是突触后膜对 Na+通透性增加所致
16 肌梭感受器的适宜刺激是
A 梭外肌收缩
B 梭外肌松弛
* C 梭外肌受牵拉
D 梭内肌紧张性降低
E 梭内肌受压迫
17 脊髓前角α运动神经元传出冲动增加使
A 梭内肌收缩
B 梭外肌收缩
C 腱器官传入冲动减少
D 肌梭传入冲动增加
E 梭内肌梭外肌都收缩
18 腱器官是一种
A 张力感受器
B 长度感受器
C 压力感受器
D 温度感受器
E 化学感受器
19 当一伸肌被过度牵拉时张力会突然降低，其原因是
A 疲劳
B 负反馈
C 回返性抑制
D 腱器官兴奋
E 肌梭敏感性降低
20 脊髓前角γ运动神经元的作用是
A 使梭外肌收缩
B 维持肌紧张
C 使腱器官兴奋
D 负反馈抑制牵张反射
E 调节肌梭对牵拉刺激的敏感性
21 脊髓前角运动神经元轴突末梢释放的递质是
A 多巴胺
B 乙酰胆碱
C 5-羟色胺
D 去甲肾上腺素
E 血管活性肠肽
22 下丘脑是较高级的
A 交感神经中枢
B 副交感神经中枢
C 内脏活动调节中枢
D 躯体运动中枢
E 交感和副交感神经中枢
23 交感神经兴奋可引起
A 瞳孔缩小
B 逼尿肌收缩
C 肠蠕动增强
D 心率加快
E 支气管平滑肌收缩
24 副交感神经兴奋可引起
A 瞳孔扩大
B 糖原分解
C 胃肠运动增强
D 骨骼肌血管舒张
E 竖毛肌收缩
25 丘脑的非特异投射系统的主要作用是
A 引起触觉
B 引起牵涉痛
C 调节内脏活动
D 维持睡眠状态
E 维持和改变大脑皮层的兴奋状态
26 丘脑的特异投射系统的主要作用是
A 协调肌紧张
B 维持觉醒
C 调节内脏功能
D 引起特定的感觉
E 引起牵涉痛
27 传导慢痛的外周神经纤维主要是
A 有髓鞘的A类纤维
B 有髓鞘的B类纤维
C 无髓鞘的C类纤维
D 自主神经节前纤维
E 自主神经节后纤维
28 下列刺激中哪项不易引起内脏痛
A 切割
B 牵拉
C 缺血
D 痉挛
E 炎症
29 下列哪项不属于小脑的功能
A 调节内脏活动
B 维持身体平衡
C 维持姿势
D 协调随意运动
E 调节肌紧张
30 在完整动物机体建立条件反射的关键步骤是
A 存在无关刺激
B 存在非条件刺激
C 没有干扰刺激
D 无关刺激与非条件刺激在时间上多次结合
E 非条件刺激出现在无关刺激之前
31 优势半球指的是下列哪项特征占优势的一侧半球
A 重量
B 运动功能
C 感觉功能
D 语言活动功能
E 皮层沟回数
32 人类区别于动物的最主要的特征是
A 能形成条件反射
B 有第一信号系统
C 有学习记忆能力
D 有第一和第二信号系统
E 对环境适应能力大
33 脑电波的形成机制是大量皮层神经无同时发生
A 工作电位
B 诱发电位
C 兴奋性突触后电位
D 抑制性突触后电位
E 突触后电位同步总和
34 以下哪一项不是异相睡眠的特征
A 唤醒阈提高
B 生长激素分泌明显增强
C 脑电波呈去同步化波
D 眼球出现快速运动
E 促进精力的恢复
【A2型题 】
35 肾上腺素能神经元的轴突末梢分支上有大量曲张体，是递质释放部位。神经冲动抵达曲张体时，递质释放，通过弥散作用到达效应细胞，使效应细胞发生反应。这种传递方式称为
A 自分泌
B 旁分泌
C 近距分泌
D 突触性化学传递
E 非突触性化学传递
36 在中脑上、下叠体之间切断脑干的动物，出现四肢伸直、头尾昂起、脊柱挺硬，表现出抗重力肌的肌紧张加强，称为去大脑僵直，其原因是脑干网状结构
A 抑制区活动增强
B 易化区活动增强
C 组织受到破坏
D 组织受到刺激
E 出现抑制解除
37 某人在意外事故中脊髓受到损伤，丧失横断面以下的一切躯体与内脏反射活动。但数周以后屈肌反射、腱反射等比较简单的反射开始逐渐恢复。这表明该患者在受伤当时出现了
A 脑震荡
B 脑水肿
C 脊休克
D 脊髓水肿
E 疼痛性休克
38 某老年患者，全身肌紧张增高、随意运动减少、动作缓慢、面部表情呆板。临床诊断为震颤麻痹。其病变主要位于
A 黑质
B 红核
C 小脑
D 纹状体
E 苍白球
39 内脏疾病常引起体表某部位发生疼痛或痛觉过敏，这称为牵涉痛，其机制是患病内脏与发生牵涉痛的皮肤部位
A 位于躯体的同一水平上
B 位于躯体的同一纵切面上
C 位于躯体的同一冠状切面上
D 受同一脊髓节段的后根神经支配
E 受同一脊髓节段的前根神经支配
40 某患者因与人争吵后服用敌敌畏,引起有机磷中毒,被给予大量阿托品治疗，阿托品对有机磷中毒的下列哪种症状无效
A 大汗
B 肠痉挛
C 心率减慢
D 肌束颤动
E 瞳孔缩小
【B1型题 】
题41~43
A 脑桥蓝斑
B 中脑黑质
C 低位脑干
D 纹状体
E 低位脑干中缝核
41 脑内多巴胺能神经元主要位于
42 脑内极大多数去甲肾上腺素能神经元位于
43 脑内5-羟色胺能神经元主要位于
题44~47
A 肾上腺素
B 去甲肾上腺素
C 乙酰胆碱
D 多巴胺
E 5-羟色胺
44 交感和副交感神经节前纤维释放的递质是
45 支配汗腺的交感神经节后纤维末梢释放的递质是
46 交感舒血管纤维末梢释放的递质是
47 交感缩血管纤维末梢释放的递质是
题48~50
A 姿势反射
B 多突触反射
C 状态反射
D 牵张反射
E 对侧伸肌反射
48 腱反射是
49 屈肌反射是
50 肌紧张是
题51~53
A 中央后回
B 中央前回
C 颞叶皮层
D 枕叶皮层
E 边缘叶
51 体表感觉在大脑皮层的投射区主要位于
52 视觉的皮层投射区在
53 听觉的皮层投射区在
题54~57
A. α波
B. β波
C δ波
D θ波
E. α波阻断
54. 成人在清醒、安静并闭目时出现(A)
55 频率最慢的脑电波是(C)
56 频率最快的脑电波是(B)
2 神经元的胞体与轴突之间的物质运输和交换依赖于
A 血液供应
B 细胞外液
C 顺向轴浆流动
D 反向轴浆流动
E 双向轴浆流动
3 神经系统实现其调节功能的基本方式是
A 兴奋和抑制
B 正反馈和负反馈
C 躯体反射和内脏反射
D 条件反射和非条件反射
E 神经内分泌调节和神经免疫调节
4 反射活动后放现象的结构基础是神经元之间的
A 链琐状联系
B 环状联系
C 辐散式联系
D 聚合式联系
E 侧支式联系
5 神经元兴奋时，首先产生动作电位的部位是
A 胞体
B 树突
C 轴突
D 轴突始段
E 树突始段
6 动作电位到达突触前膜引起递质释放与哪种离子的跨膜移动有关
A Ca2+内流
B Ca2+外流
C Na+内流
D Na+外流
E K+外流
7 下列哪项反射活动中存在着正反馈
A 腱反射
B 排尿反射
C 减压反射
D 肺牵张反射
E 对侧伸肌反射 8 神经末梢兴奋与递质释放之间的偶联因子是
A Cl-
B K+
C Na+
D Ca2+
E Mg2+
9 神经元之间除了经典突触联系外还存在电突触，其结构基础是
A 缝隙连接
B 曲张体
C 混合性突触
D 交互性突触
E 串联性突触
10 反射时的长短主要决定于
A 刺激的性质
B 刺激的强度
C 感受器的敏感度
D 神经的传导速度
E 反射 中枢突触的多少
11 由脊髓前角运动神经元与闰绍细胞构成的局部神经元回路所形成的抑制，称为 A 回返性抑制
B 前馈抑制
C 侧支抑制
D 交互抑制
E 突触前抑制
12 突触前抑制产生是由于突触前膜
A 产生超极
B 递质耗竭
C 释放抑制性递质
D 兴奋性递质释放减少
E 抑制性中间神经元兴奋
13 突触前抑制的结构基础是哪一类型的突触
A 胞体-胞体型
B 胞体-树突型
C 轴突-胞体型
D 轴突-轴突型
E 轴突-树突型
14 兴奋性突触后电位是突触后膜对什么离子的通透性增加而引起的
A K+和Ca2+
B Na+ 和K+，尤其是K+
C Na+和K+，尤其是Na+
D Na+和 Ca2+
E Cl-
15 抑制性突触后电位
A 是去极化局部电位
* B 是超极化局部电位
C 具有全或无特征
D 是突触前膜递质释放减少所致
E 是突触后膜对 Na+通透性增加所致
16 肌梭感受器的适宜刺激是
A 梭外肌收缩
B 梭外肌松弛
* C 梭外肌受牵拉
D 梭内肌紧张性降低
E 梭内肌受压迫
17 脊髓前角α运动神经元传出冲动增加使
A 梭内肌收缩
B 梭外肌收缩
C 腱器官传入冲动减少
D 肌梭传入冲动增加
E 梭内肌梭外肌都收缩
18 腱器官是一种
A 张力感受器
B 长度感受器
C 压力感受器
D 温度感受器
E 化学感受器
19 当一伸肌被过度牵拉时张力会突然降低，其原因是
A 疲劳
B 负反馈
C 回返性抑制
D 腱器官兴奋
E 肌梭敏感性降低
20 脊髓前角γ运动神经元的作用是
A 使梭外肌收缩
B 维持肌紧张
C 使腱器官兴奋
D 负反馈抑制牵张反射
E 调节肌梭对牵拉刺激的敏感性
21 脊髓前角运动神经元轴突末梢释放的递质是
A 多巴胺
B 乙酰胆碱
C 5-羟色胺
D 去甲肾上腺素
E 血管活性肠肽
22 下丘脑是较高级的
A 交感神经中枢
B 副交感神经中枢
C 内脏活动调节中枢
D 躯体运动中枢
E 交感和副交感神经中枢
23 交感神经兴奋可引起
A 瞳孔缩小
B 逼尿肌收缩
C 肠蠕动增强
D 心率加快
E 支气管平滑肌收缩
24 副交感神经兴奋可引起
A 瞳孔扩大
B 糖原分解
C 胃肠运动增强
D 骨骼肌血管舒张
E 竖毛肌收缩 25 丘脑的非特异投射系统的主要作用是
A 引起触觉
B 引起牵涉痛
C 调节内脏活动
D 维持睡眠状态
E 维持和改变大脑皮层的兴奋状态
26 丘脑的特异投射系统的主要作用是
A 协调肌紧张
B 维持觉醒
C 调节内脏功能
D 引起特定的感觉
E 引起牵涉痛
27 传导慢痛的外周神经纤维主要是
A 有髓鞘的A类纤维
B 有髓鞘的B类纤维
C 无髓鞘的C类纤维
D 自主神经节前纤维
E 自主神经节后纤维
28 下列刺激中哪项不易引起内脏痛
A 切割
B 牵拉
C 缺血
D 痉挛
E 炎症
29 下列哪项不属于小脑的功能
A 调节内脏活动
B 维持身体平衡
C 维持姿势
D 协调随意运动
E 调节肌紧张
30 在完整动物机体建立条件反射的关键步骤是
A 存在无关刺激
B 存在非条件刺激
C 没有干扰刺激
D 无关刺激与非条件刺激在时间上多次结合
E 非条件刺激出现在无关刺激之前
31 优势半球指的是下列哪项特征占优势的一侧半球
A 重量
B 运动功能
C 感觉功能
D 语言活动功能
E 皮层沟回数
32 人类区别于动物的最主要的特征是
A 能形成条件反射
B 有第一信号系统
C 有学习记忆能力
D 有第一和第二信号系统
E 对环境适应能力大
33 脑电波的形成机制是大量皮层神经无同时发生
A 工作电位
B 诱发电位
C 兴奋性突触后电位
D 抑制性突触后电位
E 突触后电位同步总和
34 以下哪一项不是异相睡眠的特征
A 唤醒阈提高
B 生长激素分泌明显增强
C 脑电波呈去同步化波
D 眼球出现快速运动
E 促进精力的恢复
【A2型题 】
35 肾上腺素能神经元的轴突末梢分支上有大量曲张体，是递质释放部位。神经冲动抵达曲张体时，递质释放，通过弥散作用到达效应细胞，使效应细胞发生反应。这种传递方式称为
A 自分泌
B 旁分泌
C 近距分泌
D 突触性化学传递
E 非突触性化学传递
36 在中脑上、下叠体之间切断脑干的动物，出现四肢伸直、头尾昂起、脊柱挺硬，表现出抗重力肌的肌紧张加强，称为去大脑僵直，其原因是脑干网状结构
A 抑制区活动增强
B 易化区活动增强
C 组织受到破坏
D 组织受到刺激
E 出现抑制解除
37 某人在意外事故中脊髓受到损伤，丧失横断面以下的一切躯体与内脏反射活动。但数周以后屈肌反射、腱反射等比较简单的反射开始逐渐恢复。这表明该患者在受伤当时出现了
A 脑震荡
B 脑水肿
C 脊休克
D 脊髓水肿
E 疼痛性休克
38 某老年患者，全身肌紧张增高、随意运动减少、动作缓慢、面部表情呆板。临床诊断为震颤麻痹。其病变主要位于
A 黑质
B 红核
C 小脑
D 纹状体
E 苍白球
39 内脏疾病常引起体表某部位发生疼痛或痛觉过敏，这称为牵涉痛，其机制是患病内脏与发生牵涉痛的皮肤部位
A 位于躯体的同一水平上
B 位于躯体的同一纵切面上
C 位于躯体的同一冠状切面上
D 受同一脊髓节段的后根神经支配
E 受同一脊髓节段的前根神经支配
40 某患者因与人争吵后服用敌敌畏,引起有机磷中毒,被给予大量阿托品治疗，阿托品对有机磷中毒的下列哪种症状无效
A 大汗
B 肠痉挛
C 心率减慢
D 肌束颤动
E 瞳孔缩小
【B1型题 】
题41~43
A 脑桥蓝斑
B 中脑黑质
C 低位脑干
D 纹状体
E 低位脑干中缝核
41 脑内多巴胺能神经元主要位于
42 脑内极大多数去甲肾上腺素能神经元位于
43 脑内5-羟色胺能神经元主要位于
题44~47
A 肾上腺素
B 去甲肾上腺素
C 乙酰胆碱
D 多巴胺
E 5-羟色胺
44 交感和副交感神经节前纤维释放的递质是
45 支配汗腺的交感神经节后纤维末梢释放的递质是
46 交感舒血管纤维末梢释放的递质是
47 交感缩血管纤维末梢释放的递质是
题48~50
A 姿势反射
B 多突触反射
C 状态反射
D 牵张反射
E 对侧伸肌反射
48 腱反射是
49 屈肌反射是
50 肌紧张是
题51~53
A 中央后回
B 中央前回
C 颞叶皮层
D 枕叶皮层
E 边缘叶
51 体表感觉在大脑皮层的投射区主要位于
52 视觉的皮层投射区在
53 听觉的皮层投射区在
题54~57
A. α波
B. β波
C δ波
D θ波
E. α波阻断
54. 成人在清醒、安静并闭目时出现(A)
55 频率最慢的脑电波是(C)
56 频率最快的脑电波是(B)
试题答案
1.B 2.E 3.D 4.B 5.D 6.A 7.B 8.D 9.A 10.E 11.A 12.D 13.D 14.C 15.B 16.C 17.B 18.A 19.D 20.E 21.B 22.C 23.D 24.C 25.E 26.D 27.C 28.A 29.A 30.D 31.D 32.D 33.E 34.B 35.E 36.B 37.C 38.A 39.D 40.D 41.B 42.C 43.E 44.C 45.C 46.C 47.B 48.D 49.B 50.D 51.A 52.D 53.C 54.A 55.C 56.B作者: wangshuo1688 时间: 07-1-26 15:17
第十一章 内分泌
[A1型题]
1 激素的半衰期可用来表示激素的
A 作用起效速度
B 作用持续时间
C 更新速度
D 释放速度
E 与受体结合速度
2 体内大多数由内分泌腺释放的激素转送到靶组织的方式是
A 远距分泌
B 腔分泌
C 旁分泌
D 自分泌
E 神经分泌
3 第二信使cAMP的作用是激活
A DNA酶
B 磷酸化酶
C 蛋白激酶
D 腺苷酸环化酶
E 磷酸二酯酶
4 下列哪种激素属于含氮激素
A 1,25-二羟维生素D3
B 雌二醇
C 睾酮
D 醛固酮
E 促甲状腺激素
5 神经激素是指
A 存在于神经系统的激素
B 作用于神经细胞的激素
C 由神经细胞分泌的激素
D 使神经系统兴奋的激素
E 调节内分泌腺功能的激素
6 激素作用一般特性的共同点是
A 由内分泌细胞粗面内质网合成
B 以cAMP为第二信使
C 受体位于靶细胞膜上
D 对靶细胞有严格特异性
E 有高效能的生物放大作用
7 类固醇激素作用机制的第一步是与靶细胞的
A 胞膜受体结合
B 胞浆受体结合
C 核受体结合
D 兴奋型G-蛋白结合
E 抑制型G-蛋白结合
8 下列哪种激素不是由腺垂体合成、分泌的
A 促甲状腺激素
B 促肾上腺皮质激素
C 生长素
D 催产素
E 黄体生成素
9 下列哪种调节肽不是由下丘脑促垂体区的神经细胞合成的
A 促肾上腺皮质激素
B 生长素释放激素
C 催乳素释放因子
D 促性腺激素释放激素
E 促甲状腺激素释放激素
10 生长素分泌有日周期,血中浓度最高的时间是在
A 清晨
B 中午
C 傍晚
D 慢波睡眠
E 异相睡眠
11 刺激生长素分泌最强的代谢因素是
A 低蛋白
B 低血糖
C 低血脂
D 低血钾
E 低血钠
12 下列哪一项不是生长素的直接作用
A 诱导肝产生生长介素
B 促进脂肪分解
C 促进软骨生长
D 增强脂肪酸氧化
E 抑制外周组织摄取、利用葡萄糖
13 血液中生物活性最强的甲状腺激素是
A 碘化酪氨酸
B 一碘酪氨酸
C 二碘酪氨酸
D 三碘甲腺原氨酸
E 四碘甲腺原氨酸
14 对脑和长骨的发育最为重要的激素是
A 生长素
B 性激素
C 甲状腺激素
D 促甲状腺激素
E 1,25-二羟维生素D3
15 甲状腺的含碘量占全身含碘量的
A 10%
B 30%
C 50%
D 70%
E 90%
16 在甲状腺激素合成过程中起关键作用的酶是
A 过氧化酶
B 脱碘酶
C 磷酸化酶
D 蛋白水解酶
E 氨基化酶
17 血液中哪一项物质的浓度最能反映甲状腺功能的高低
A 结合型甲状腺激素
B 游离型甲状腺激素
C 促甲状腺激素
D 甲状腺素结合球蛋白
E 甲状腺素结合前白蛋白
18 下丘脑-腺垂体调节甲状腺功能的主要激素是
A 生长素
B 促黑激素
C 促甲状腺激素
D 促肾上腺皮质激素
E 刺激甲状腺免疫球蛋白
19 调节血钙浓度最主要的激素是
A 生长素
B 降钙素
C 甲状腺激素
D 甲状旁腺激素
E 肾上腺皮质激素
20 血液中降钙素主要由哪种细胞产生
A 胰岛A细胞
B 胰岛B细胞
C 甲状腺C细胞
D 甲状旁腺细胞
E 小肠上部K细胞
21 合成肾上腺皮质激素的原料是
A 葡萄糖
B 蛋白质
C 脂肪酸
D 胆固醇
E 卵磷脂
22 关于糖皮质激素对代谢的影响,下列哪项是错误的
A 促进肝外组织蛋白质分解
B 促进肾保钠、排钾、排水
C 促进糖异生
D 减少外周组织对葡萄糖利用
E 促进全身各部位的脂肪分解
23 关于肾上腺髓质的叙述,下列哪项是错误的
A 受交感神经节前纤维支配
B 神经末梢释放乙酰胆碱
C 神经递质作用于嗜铬细胞上的N型受体
D 主要释放去甲肾上腺素
E 在应急反应时激素释放增加
24 刺激胰岛素分泌最主要的因素是
A 胃泌素释放
B 迷走神经兴奋
C 血糖浓度升高
D 血氨基酸浓度升高
E 胰高血糖素释放
25 广泛存在于人体内的前列腺素是一种
A 循环激素
B 组织激素
C 雄性激素
D 神经激素
E 自分泌激素
[A2型题]
26 糖皮质激素本身没有缩血管效应,但能加强去甲上肾腺素的缩血管作用, 这称为
A 协同作用
B 致敏作用
C 增强作用
D允许作用
E 辅助作用
27 肾上腺皮质功能不足的患者,排除水分的能力大为减弱,可出现\"水中毒\"， 补充下列哪种激素可缓解症状
A 胰岛素
B 糖皮质激素
C 醛固酮
D 肾上腺素
E 胰高血糖素
28 由肠吸收的碘以I-的形式存在于血液中,I-从血液进入甲状腺上皮细胞内的转运方式是
A 单纯扩散
B 载体介导易化扩散
C 通道介导易化扩散
D 主动转运
E 胞吞
29 在缺乏促甲状腺激素的情况下,甲状腺本身可适应碘的供应变化调节甲状腺激素的合成、释放。这种调节方式称为
A 神经调节
B 体液调节
C 自身调节
D 前馈调节
E 反馈调节
30实验观察到，抑制腺苷酸环化酶后，胰高血糖素分解糖原的作用不再出现，表明介导其作用的第二信使是
A Ca2+
B cAMP
C cGMP
D 前列腺素
E 甘油二酯
[B1型题]
题31-33
A 呆小症
B 巨人症
C 侏儒症
D 粘液性水肿
E 肢端肥大症
31 成年后生长素分泌过多,导致
32 成人甲状腺功能低下,导致
33 幼年期生长素过少,导致
题34-35
A 糖皮质激素
B 甲状腺激素
C ACTH
D ACTH和糖皮质激素
E 糖皮质激素和去甲肾上腺素
34 产生应激反应时,血中哪项激素浓度升高
35 在腺泡腔内储存,并在激素储存量上居首位的是
试题答案:
1.C 2.A 3.C 4.E 5.C 6.E 7.B 8.D 9.A 10.D 11.B 12.C 13.D 14.C 15.E 16.A 17.B 18.C 19.D 20.C 21.D 22.E 23.D 24.C 25.B 26.D 27.B 28.D 29.C 30.B 31.E 32.D 33.C 34.D 35.B作者: wangshuo1688 时间: 07-1-26 15:17
第十二章 生 殖
[A1型题]
1 体内精子储存在
A 睾丸
B 前列腺
C 精囊腺
D 附睾和输精管
E 尿道球腺
2 睾酮的主要产生部位是
A 睾丸生精细胞
B 睾丸间质细胞
C 睾丸支持细胞
D 曲细精管上皮细胞
E 肾上腺皮质网状带细胞
3 下列哪项不属于睾酮的生理作用
A 维持生精作用
B 刺激生殖器官生长发育
C 促进乳腺发育
D 促进蛋白合成
E 促进男性副性征出现
4 下列哪项组织不能合成雌激素
A 卵巢
B 黄体
C 胎盘
D 子宫
E 肾上腺皮质
5 下列哪项不属于雌激素的生理作用
A 使卵泡发育成熟、排卵
B 使子宫内膜发生分泌期变化
C 使输卵管运动增强
D 刺激阴道上皮细胞增生、角化
E 促进乳腺发育
6 出现月经是由于血液中什么激素的浓度急剧下降所致
A 生长素
B 雌激素
C 孕激素
D 雌激素和孕激素
E 雌激素和生长素
7 血液中哪种激素出现高峰可以作为排卵的标志
A 雌激素
B 孕激素
C 黄体生成素
D 卵泡刺激素
E 卵泡刺激素释放激素
8 排卵后形成的黄体可分泌
A 孕酮
B 黄体生成素
C 卵泡刺激素
D 雌激素和孕酮
E 黄体生成素和孕酮
9 关于孕酮的生理作用的叙述,下列哪项是错误的?
A 使子宫内膜呈分泌期变化
B 使子宫肌活动减弱
C 抑制母体免疫排斥反应
D 促进乳腺腺泡发育
E 使排卵后基础体温降低
10 在月经周期中,形成雌激素分泌第二个高峰的直接原因是
A 卵泡刺激素分泌增加
B 黄体生成素分泌增加
C 雌激素的正反馈作用
D 雌激素的负反馈作用减弱
E 孕激素的正反馈作用
11 妊娠时维持黄体功能的主要激素是
A 雌激素
B 孕激素
C 卵泡刺激素
D 黄体生成素
E 绒毛膜促性腺激素
[A2型题]
12 女性基础体温在排卵后升高0.5℃左右,并在黄体期维持在此水平。 基础体温的升高与下列哪种激素有关
A 雌激素
B 孕激素
C 卵泡刺激素
D 黄体生成素
E 甲状腺激素
13 在排卵前一天血液中出现黄体生成素高峰,若事先用抗雌激素血清处理动物, 则黄体生成素高峰消失。表明黄体生成素高峰是由下列哪种激素高峰所诱导的
A 雌激素
B 孕激素
C 卵泡刺激素
D 肾上腺皮质激素
E 促肾上腺皮质激素
14 大多数哺乳动物和人类,精子必须在雌性生殖道内停留一段时间方能获得使卵子受精的能力,这种现象称为
A 受精
B 着床
C 顶体反应
D 精子获能
E 精子去获能
[B1型题]
题15-16
A 雌激素
B 雄激素
C 卵泡刺激素
D 催产素
E 雌激素和雄激素
15 腺垂体产生
16 肾上腺皮质网状带细胞产生
题17-19
A 下丘脑
B 腺垂体
C 卵巢
D 子宫
E 胎盘
17 黄体生成素来源于
18 促性腺激素释放激素来源于
19 绒毛膜促性腺激素来源于
试题答案
1.D 2.B 3.C 4.D 5.B 6.D 7.C 8.D 9.E 10.B 11.E 12.B 13.A 14.D 15.C 16.E 17.B 18.A 19.E作者: wangshuo1688 时间: 07-1-26 15:19
Autonomic Nervous System
Instructions:
Select the single best answer to the numbered question.
Question # 1
Prejunctional (preganglionic) sympathetic nerves:
A. Some originate in the ventralmedial tract of the spinal cord
B. Most are not myelinated
C. Some originate from the dorsal motor nucleus in the medulla
D. Always release ACh as a ganglionic neurotransmitter
E. None of the above
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 2
Postjunctional (postganglionic) sympathetic fibers:
A. Are found at all segments of the paravertebral chains
B. Connect the paravertebral chains to prevertebral ganglia
C. Innervate the adrenal medulla
D. Usually are myelinated
E. None of the above
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Question # 3
Preganglionic parasympathetic nerves:
A. Innervate the adrenal medulla
B. Originate from S1 in the spinal cord
C. Originate from nuclei in the hypothalamus
D. Innervate ciliary muscle in the eye
E. None of the above
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Question # 4
Acetylcholine:
A. Inhibits phospholipase C via M3 receptors in bladder
B. Inhibits K channel activation via M2 receptors in cardiac muscle
C. Dilates vascular smooth muscle by inhibiting NO production
D. Depolarizes postjunctional ganglionic neurons by opening K channels
E. None of the above
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Question # 5
Pertussis toxin:
A. Blocks parasympathetic responses in the heart
B. Blocks parasympathetic responses in the bladder
C. Blocks sympathetic responses in the heart
D. Blocks sympathetic responses in the bladder that are mediated by beta2 receptors
E. None of the above
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Question # 6
Predominant tone is sympathetic in nonvascular cells of:
A. Heart
B. Liver
C. Intestine
D. Eye
E. None of the above
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Question # 7
The potency of Epi >> NE at:
A. alpha1 receptors
B. alpha2 receptors
C. beta1 receptors
D. beta2 receptors
E. none of the above
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Question # 8
Blood vessels of the penis:
A. receive parasympathetic innervation
B. dilate in response to sympathetic nerve activation
C. constrict in response to Viagra
D. constrict in response to NO
E. none of the above
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Question # 9
Epinephrine, at physiological concentrations:
A. inhibits platelet aggregation
B. constricts the hepatic artery
C. constricts the renal artery
D. stimulates GI motility
E. none of the above
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Question # 10
Blood vessels of working skeletal muscle dilate in response to:
A. Adenosine produced by contracting muscle
B. NE released from adrenergic nerve terminals
C. NO produced by contracting muscle
D. Epi released from adrenergic nerve terminals
E. None of the above
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Question # 11
The baroreceptor reflex pathway contains inhibitory projections (nerves) from:
A. baroreceptors to the NTS
B. the NTS to the nucleus ambiguus
C. the NTS to the caudal ventrolateral medulla
D. the caudal ventrolateral medulla to the rostral ventrolateral medulla
E. none of the above
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Question # 12
Micturition is stimulated by activation of:
A. parasympathetic pelvic nerves
B. sympathetic hypogastric nerves
C. somatic pudendal nerves
D. sympathetic fibers that innervate pelvic parasympathetic ganglia
E. none of the above.
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Question # 13
Which of the following contain autonomic nerves:
A. Spinal nerves
B. Splanchnic nerves
C. Pelvic nerves
D. The Vagus
E. All of the above
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Question # 14
Which of the following are myelinated:
A. Sympathetic nerves to the adrenal medulla
B. Postganglionic sympathetic fibers
C. Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers
D. Nerves leaving prevertebral ganglia
E. None of the above
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Question # 15
Which belong together:
A. Edinger-Westphal Nucleus: VII cranial nerve: ptergopalatine ganglion: lacrimal gland
B. Superior Salivatory nucleus: III cranial nerve: ciliary ganglion: eye
C. Dorsal motor nucleus: IX cranial nerve: otic ganglion: parotid
D. Nucleus ambiguus: X cranial nerve: stellate ganglion: heart
E. None of the above
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Question # 16
Epinephrine:
A. Is made from tyramine
B. Is a catecholamine
C. Is methylated to make norepinephrine
D. Is the same as noradrenaline
E. None of the above
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Question # 17
Acetylcholine:
A. Is found in sympathetic ganglia
B. Is found in parasympathetic ganglia
C. Activates nicotinic receptors on the adrenal medulla
D. Activates nicotinic receptors on skeletal muscle
E. All of the above
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Question # 18
Epinephrine is much more potent than norepinephrine:
A. At alpha2 receptors
B. At beta1 receptors
C. At beta2 receptors
D. At beta3 receptors
E. None of the above
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Question # 19
Cholera toxin:
A. Activates Gi
B. Prevents receptors from interacting with Gi
C. Activates Gs
D. Prevents receptors from interacting with Gs
E. None of the above
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Question # 20
Cyclic AMP:
A. Is produced by adenylyl cyclase
B. Is produced by guanylyl cyclase
C. Is produced by phosphodiesterase
D. Stimulates calmo
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 21
Nitric oxide (NO):
A. Synthesis is inhibited by calcium in endothelial cells
B. Is degraded by NO-esterase
C. Causes vascular smooth muscle to constrict
D. Stimulates cyclic GMP-dependent protein kinase
E. None of the above
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Question # 22
Activation of beta1 receptors:
A. Increases time between heart beats
B. Increases time between atrial and ventricular contractions in the heart
C. Increases renin secretion
D. Decreases sweating
E. All of the above
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Question # 23
Most blood vessels:
A. Constrict in response to NE released from sympathetic nerves
B. Dilate in response to ACh released from parasympathetic nerves
C. Dilate in response to circulating epinephrine
D. Have beta3 adrenergic receptors
E. None of the above
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Question # 24
Predominant autonomic tone at rest:
A. To arteries and veins is parasympathetic
B. To the heart is sympathetic
C. To the G.I. tract is sympathetic
D. To sweat glands is sympathetic
E. None of the above
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Question # 25
Blood flow to skeletal muscle:
A. Is decreased due to epinephrine binding to beta2 receptors
B. Is increased due to norepinephrine binding to alpha1 receptors
C. Is decreased due to adenosine binding to A2 adenosine receptors
D. Is decreased due to NO activating guanylyl cyclase
E. None of the above
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Question # 26
In the eye: A. Activation of sympathetic nerves causes miosis
B. Activation of parasympathetic nerves inhibits secretion from lacrimal glands
C. Aqueous humor production and intraocular pressure are decreased by activation of alpha2 receptors
D. Intraocular pressure is increased by activation of muscarinic receptors
E. None of the above
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Question # 27
In the bladder:
A. Contraction of the trigone stimulates micturition
B. The detrusor muscle is inhibited by its sparse sympathetic innervation
C. Sympathetic nerve fibers stimulate parasympathetic activity within the pelvic plexus
D. Distention of the bladder inhibits afferent fibers of the pelvic and pudendal nerves
E. None of the above
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Answer：
1.D 2.A 3.E 4.E 5.A 6.E 7.D 8.A 9.C 10.A
11.D 12.A 13.E 14.A 15.E 16.B 17.E 18.C 19.C 20.A
21.E 22.C 23.A 24.D 25.E 26.C 27.B作者: wangshuo1688 时间: 07-1-26 15:20
Cardiovascular System
Instructions:
Select the single best answer to the numbered question.
Heart As A Pump
Question # 1
Indicate whether the following statement is true or false.
Calcium release from the SR contributes more to cardiac contraction than inflow of Ca++ across the sarcolemma.
A. True
B. False
Calcium removal from the cytoplasm after contraction of the myocardium is:
A. Dependent on the T-type calcium channel
B. Regulated by phospholamban
C. Augmented by the dihydropyridine receptor
D. b & c
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Question # 3
Indicate whether the following statement is true or false.
The Frank-Starling Relationship partially explains how cardiac output can be stabilized in a patient after a modest myocardial infarction.
A. True
B. False
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Question # 4
Indicate whether the following statement is true or false.
Ventricular filling starts during isometric relaxation.
A. True
B. False
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Question # 5
Which of the following factors increase preload? A. Increased blood volume
B. Horizontal posture or negative intrapleural pressure
C. Increased sympathetic tone to veins
D. Skeletal muscle muscular activity
E. all of the above
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Answer：
1.A 2.B 3.A 4.B 5.E
The Arterial System
Question # 1
A reduction in arterial compliance results in:
A. a rise in systolic arterial pressure but a reduction in mean arterial pressure.
B. a rise in systolic and in mean arterial pressure.
C. a rise in systolic but no significant change in mean arterial pressure.
D. a rise in systolic and an even greater rise in diastolic arterial pressure.
E. a fall in systolic but a rise in diastolic arterial pressure.
Which is increased by an increase in total peripheral resistance in an old arteriosclerotic individual:
A. Mean arterial pressure only
B. Pulse pressure only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
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Question # 3
Which is/are increased by a two-fold increase in heart rate simultaneous with a 25% reduction in stroke volume?
A. Mean arterial pressure only
B. Pulse pressure only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
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Question # 4
Increases in arterial capacitance and stroke volume will affect the pulse pressure in opposite directions:
A. True
B. False
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Question # 5
A sudden rise in cardiac output would elevate the mean arterial pressure of a person with reduced arterial capacitance more rapidly than it would in a normal person.
A. True
B. False
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Question # 6
The venous side of the circulation is characterized by
A. low pressure
B. low resistance to flow.
C. large volume capacity.
D. rich sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation
E. all of the above except D.
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Question # 7
In general, it can be said that:
A. the volume capacity of the aorta is high because of its great distensibility.
B. blood volume capacity is highest at the veins, cross sectional area is greatest at the capillaries, and resistance to flow is greatest at the arterioles.
C. blood velocity is similar in all parts of the bed.
D. blood pressure drops from aorta to capillaries, then rises at the level of the venules.
E. All of the above except A.
Previous Question Next Question
The arterial side of the circulation is characterized by
A. turbulent blood flow.
B. high pressure.
C. high resistance to flow.
D. small volume capacity.
E. All of the above except A.
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Question # 9
The following is/are correct regarding the structure and composition of the vascular bed:
A. aortic capacity is highest because of the large concentration of elastin.
B. blood volume is greatest in the veins, cross sectional area is greatest at the capillaries, and resistance to flow is greatest at the arterioles.
C. blood velocity decreases in the smaller vessels.
D. blood pressure drops from aorta to capillaries, then rises at the level of the venules.
E. B. and C.
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Question # 10
The pressure pulse in the root of the aorta is:
A. narrower than the peripheral pulse.
B. characterized by a more pronounced dicrotic notch than would be found in the peripheral vessels.
C. identical to the pulse in the periphery.
D. characterized by a lower frequency than the peripheral pulse.
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Question # 11
Select the single best answer to the numbered question.
Mean pressure is approximately equal to:
A. systolic pressure - diastolic pressure
B. systolic pressure + diastolic pressure
C. diastolic pressure + 1/3 systolic pressure
D. 1/3 (systolic pressure - diastolic pressure)
E. none of these
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The total resistance through a parallel set of 3 tubes, of resistance 5, 10, and 20 units, respectively is:
A. 0.35 units
B. 2.9 units
C. 3.5 units
D. 35 units
E. 29 units
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Question # 2
If you measure the change in pressure in a subject\'s scalp and in her ankle during the time that she stands up:
A. the arterial pressure in the ankle, would increase more than the venous pressure.
B. due to the cardiac acceleration associated with standing, the measured pressures would rise in both the scalp and the ankle
C. the driving pressure across the leg and the head would increase by the same amount
D. the flow through the artery would increase by more than the flow through the vein because the blood flows down hill in the artery.
E. none of these
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Question # 3
Constriction of vessel \"C\" would increase the filtration of fluid from vessels B1 through B4.
A. True
B. False
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Question # 4
Constriction of vessel\"A\" would have the same effect on total flow through this network as constriction of vessel \"C\", but would have the opposite effect on filtration from the B vessels.
A. True
B. False
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Question # 5
Assumming that all of the \"B\" vessels below are identical, removal of one of them would be expected to:
A. increase the flow through the network by 33%
B. increase the network resistance by 33%
C. lower the filtration coefficient of the network
D. A and B
E. B and C
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 6
When linear velocity of flow in a blood vessel is 100 cm/sec and the volume flow is 200 ml/sec , the cross-sectional area is:
A. 300 cm2
B. 100 cm2
C. 0.5 cm2
D. 2.0 cm2
E. none of these
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Question # 7
Select the single best answer to the numbered question.
Given laminar flow of a Newtonian fluid through a cylindrical tube with a fixed driving pressure, if the radius is doubled, flow will:
A. double.
B. remain unchanged.
C. quadruple
D. increase 16-fold.
E. increase 8-fold.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 8
Red blood cells have a relatively small effect on the viscosity of blood in arterioles due to their biconcave disc shape.
A. True
B. False
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 9
The total force exerted on the semilunar valves by the pressure of the blood would be doubled if the diameter of the valve were doubled.
A. True
B. False
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 10
The driving pressure for a given segment of the circulation is the difference between the input pressure and output pressure to the segment.
A. True
B. False
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 11
Blood is thicker than water mainly because of the semi gel nature of the plasma proteins in the body.
A. True
B. False
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 12
The velocity of the red cells is usually faster than the velocity of the plasma in the microvessels.
A. True
B. False
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Question # 13
If a Newtonian fluid is flowing through a constriction in a circular pipe, which of the following is true?
A. the velocity of the fluid increases as the fluid exits the constriction.
B. the pressure measured by a catheter inserted into the lumen at the constriction would be lower than the pressure measured at the entrance to the constriciton.
C. the velocity through the constriction would vary with the 4th power of the radius of the tube.
D. the total energy of the fluid would increase as the fluid accelerates through the constriction.
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Question # 14
If the cardiac output is 6L/min and the arterial pressure is 120 mm Hg, then the capillary pressure must be two millimeters of mercury.
A. True
B. False
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Question # 15
Two vessels with equal resistances are connected in series, and the inflow and outflow pressures are fixed. If the resistances of both vessels are doubled, the pressure at a point midway between them would be doubled.
A. True
B. False
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Question # 16
Which of the following are true about turbulence?
A. It is less likely to occur at a low flow than at a high flow.
B. For a given flow, turbulence would be more likely to occur in a large vessel than in a small vessel.
C. Turbulence is more likely to occur with a high viscosity fluid than with a low viscosity fluid.
D. Turbulence is noiser than laminar flow.
E. A, and D
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Question # 17
In the figure below, which of the curves would likely be the correct description of a distensible vessel?
A. picture
B. picture
C. picture
D. picture
E. picture
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 18
Select the single best answer to the numbered question.
Shear rate can affect the viscosity of the blood.
A. True
B. False
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Question # 19
Examine the drawing below, and choose the correct answer regarding pressures that might be measured in the tube (assume that there are no frictional losses along the length of the tube).
A. P1 < P2
B. P1 > P2
C. P1 = P2
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Question # 20
Examine the figure below and answer the questions regarding the pressures.
A. P2 > P3
B. P3 > P2
C. P2 = P3
D. can\'t say
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 21
The shear stress in an artery is greater next to the the wall than at the center of the vessel.
A. True
B. False
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Which one of the following statements is true:
A. The higher the molecular weight of a substance the more readily it diffuses across the capillary.
B. Capillary surface area does not influence the amount of substance which diffuses down a concentration gradient.
C. For a given molecular size, lipid insoluble substances diffuse more readily than lipid soluble substances.
D. The transport of small solutes across the capillary wall cannot be described in terms of physical laws.
E. None are true.
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Question # 2
Under physiological conditions capillary exchange is controlled primarily by:
A. altered capillary permeability.
B. altered plasma oncotic pressure.
C. altered vascular smooth muscle contraction.
D. altered tissue hydrostatic pressure.
E. altered lymphatic drainage.
Given that: 1 = tissue oncotic pressure, 2 = plasma oncotic pressure, 3 = plasma hydrostatic pressure, 4 = tissue hydrostatic pressure, the best statement for the net driving force for capillary filtration is (Hint: think about the forces involved):
A. (3-2) - (4-1)
B. (4-2) - (3-1)
C. (3-1) - (4-2)
D. (2-3) - (1-4)
E. none of the above.
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Question # 4
The conditions in the blood capillaries are ideal for diffusional exchange because:
A. intracapillary pressure is higher than arteriolar pressure.
B. the small diameter of capillaries permits red cell skimming.
C. the ratio of capillary surface/capillary volume is largest and blood velocity is minimum.
D. of the low capillary flow resistance due to their small total cross- sectional area.
E. pinocytosis is minimal in endothelial cells.
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Question # 5
Which one of the following would not be expected to influence lymph flow:
A. Muscular activity.
B. Starvation.
C. A similar increase in precapillary and postcapillary resistance.
D. Stimulation of the sympathetic vasoconstrictor nerves.
E. An infusion of isotonic saline.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 6
In which one of the following pairs of words are the pairs least related:
A. Protein - Van\'t Hoffs Law.
B. Ultrafiltration - Starling.
C. Diffusion - Fick\'s Law.
D. Autoregulation - myogenic.
E. Plasma protein osmotic pressure - solute diffusion.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 7
The wall tension in an arteriole 50 mm in diameter with an intraluminal pressure of 80 mmHg is _____ times that of a 25 mm vessel with similar intraluminal pressure:
A. two
B. one half
C. four
D. one fourth
E. 16
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Question # 8
Select the single best answer to the numbered question.
Changes in _____ are responsible for the fact that fluid is normally filtered at the arterial end of the capillaries and reabsorbed at the venous end.
A. tissue hydrostatic pressure
B. plasma oncotic pressure
C. diffusion coefficient
D. capillary surface area
E. plasma hydrostatic pressure.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 9
Capillary diffusion capacity is controlled mainly by opening and closing the space between endothelial cells.
A. true
B. false
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 10
One way of decreasing the resistance of the arterioles with a vasoactive agent would be to decrease the number of arterioles.
A. true
B. false
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 11
Lipid solubility and size are more important than charge in the determination of the way in which a molecule will traverse the capillary wall.
A. true
B. false
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 12
The major function of the metarterioles is to shunt blood from the arterioles to the venules.
A. true
B. false
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Outward capillary filtration is enhanced by:
A. increased plasma oncotic pressure.
B. arteriolar constriction.
C. hypotension.
D. increased venous pressure.
E. increased lymphatic pressure.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 2
The processes of capillary exchanges are best characterized by which of the following statements?
A. The capillary endothelium is permeable to water and electrolytes and impermeable to protein.
B. The rate of diffusion of a solute across the capillary wall is defined by Van\'t Hoffs law.
C. The capillary pores occupy a large percentage of the total capillary surface area.
D. The rate of diffusion of a solute is directly related to its concentration gradient but indirectly related to its free diffusion coefficient.
E. None are true.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 3
Lymph flow decreases with:
A. Exercise.
B. Hemorrhage.
C. Protein leakage from capillaries
D. Increased venous pressure.
E. Increased arterial pressure.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 4
If the net transmural pressure is 40 mm Hg and flow through the capillary walls is 0.2 ml/min/100g of tissue, the capillary filtration coefficient is:
A. 200
B. 8.0
C. 0.008
D. 0.005
E. 0.002
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 5
Arterioles are the main site of vascular resistance to flow because:
A. the effect of their small radius on individual resistances is not compensated by their large number and parallel arrangement.
B. the smooth muscle in the media has a high tone susceptible to modulation by sympathetic nerves.
C. in tubes of their size, the apparent blood viscosity is highest.
D. the ratio of medial thickness to lumenal diameter is very large.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 6
The largest fraction of total blood volume is found:
A. in the aorta
B. between the aorta and capillaries.
C. in small and large veins.
D. in the capillaries
E. in the vena cava
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 7
Under physiological conditions, capillary exchange is regulated primarily by:
A. altering capillary permeability.
B. altering plasma oncotic pressure.
C. altering vascular smooth muscle contraction.
C. D altering lymphatic drainage.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 8
Which of the following is not true regarding fluid filtration?
A. The rate of fluid filtration is increased by an increase in tissue oncotic pressure.
B. The rate of fluid filtration is increased during starvation.
C. Most glucose is carried to the tissues in the filtered fluid.
D. Fluid filtration is increased by opening new capillaries.
E. None of these.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 9
Small vessels can sustain large intraluminal pressures because they are supported by the parenchymal cells and thus do not require the connective tissue of the larger elastic arteries.
A. True
B. False
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 10
The small amount of protein which leaks from the capillaries is returned to the circulation mainly by pinocytotic transport of the protein across the capillary endothelium.
A. True
B. False
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 11
Glucose transport to cells is carried out primarily by filtration of fluid and cotransport of the dissolved glucose through the capillary endothelium.
A. True
B. False
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 12
Albumin is about the largest lipid insoluble molecule which will diffuse across the endothelium.
A. True
B. False
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Which one of the following statements characterizes the role of the medulla oblongata in the regulation of the heart and blood vessels?
A. It contains a vasomotor center in which some but not all of the descending neurons affecting the control of blood vessels synapse.
B. It contains a cardioinhibitory center which unlike the vasomotor center is little influenced by impulses from carotid baroreceptor.
C. Both statements above are correct.
D. None is correct.
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Question # 2
The vasoconstrictor center:
A. is located in the medulla and is tonically active
B. its activity is modulated by the baroreceptors and hypothalmic centers
C. its activity is depressed by lowering the blood pressure in the carotids.
D. its activity is enhanced by carotid chemoreceptor firing and the vasomotor center itself is most sensitive to changes in PCO2 and PO2
E. all of the above except C.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 3
With hemorrhage:
A. pulse pressure decreases.
B. hematocrit ratio increases
C. stroke volume and heart rate increase.
D. number of impulses traveling in the sinus nerves increases.
E. skin temperature increases.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 4
The vasomotor center is stimulated most effectively by:
A. decreased arterial blood oxygen tension.
B. increased arterial blood hydrogen ion concentraion
C. increased arterial blood adenosine concentration
D. increased arterial blood carbon dioxide tension.
E. increased arterial blood potassium ion concentration.
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Question # 5
The skin arteriovenous anastamoses:
A. are insensitive to circulating catecholamines.
B. possess a high degree of basal tone.
C. are more sensitive to neural influences than to metabolic stimuli.
D. are less sensitive to sympathetic stimulation than muscle arterioles.
E. dilate in response to cooling of the hypothalamus.
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Question # 6
The segment of the vascular bed responsible for local or intrinsic regulation of blood flow in most tissues is:
A. the distributing arteries.
B. the large veins.
C. the capillaries.
D. the venules.
E. the arterioles.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 7
Neural control of the arterioles in skeletal muscle can produce:
A. dilation only.
B. constriction only.
C. both of the above.
D. neither of the above.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 8
Veins in skeletal muscle respond to:
A. sympathetic neural dilation only.
B. sympathetic neural constriction only.
C. both of the above.
D. neither of the above.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 9
Autoregulation:
A. Accounts for the relative constancy of organ blood flow in the face of changes in perfusion pressure.
B. Can be explained by both metabolic and myogenic mechanisms.
C. Accounts for the increase in the organ blood flow when perfusion pressure increases.
D. Is mediated by sympathetic vasoconstrictor fibers.
E. A and B.
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Question # 10
Active or functional hyperemia:
A. Is exemplified by the increase in skeletal muscle blood flow during exercise.
B. Is mediated by a decreased washout of metabolites from the active tissue.
C. Is mediated by stretch of the vascular smooth muscle in the active tissue.
D. Is mediated by an increase in mean arterial pressure.
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Question # 11
Concerning the control of the cardiovascular system by the autonomic nervous system, the following are true:
A. Control of the sympathetic neural activity to the arterioles can accomplish either constriction or dilation.
B. The effect of sympathetic nerve activity on organ blood volume is negligible.
C. Increased vagal activity causes a decrease in heart rate and a cholinergically-mediated arteriolar vasodilation.
D. Increased parasympathetic nerve activity decreases flow resistance of skeletal- but not visceral smooth muscle.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 12
Select the single best answer to the numbered question.
Stimulation of either the cardiac beta or the vascular beta receptors will have the same effect on the mean arterial pressure.
A. True
B. False
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 13
Norepinephrine and angiotensin ll have the same effect on the arterioles.
A. True
B. False
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------
The arterial baroreceptors:
A. Stop firing action potentials above a mean arterial pressure of about 250 mmHg.
B. Show a firing rate that is independent of the magnitude of the pulse pressure.
C. Exert their primary effect via the medullary vasomotor center.
D. Are located within the lumen of most major arteries in the body.
E. A and C.
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Question # 2
The baroreceptor-mediated response to increased mean arterial pressure would include:
A. Decreased sympathetic nerve activity to the heart.
B. Peripheral vasodilation.
C. Increased action potential frequency in the afferent nerves to the medullary cardiovascular center.
D. A. and B.
E. A., B. and C.
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Question # 3
Calcium in vascular smooth muscle:
A. comes solely from the extracellular fluid.
B. is elevated by norepinephrine but not by oxygen.
C. modulates tone mainly by altering receptor affinity for ligands
D. modulates tone mainly by altering the interaction between actin and myosin
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 4
Tone in vascular smooth muscle:
A. is independent of changes in intracellular calcium.
B. is increased by stretch
C. is independent of sympathetic activity
D. is independent of hormonal activity
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 5
Endothelial cell communication with the smooth muscle cells of the vessel wall is:
A. due mainly to diffusion of Ca++ from endothelial cell to smooth muscle cells.
B. based on the formation of EDRF (nitric oxide) which diffuses from the endothelial cell to the VSM.
C. stimulated mainly by neural factors
D. sensitive to the concentration of bradykinin in the vessel lumen EDRF
E. B. and D.
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Question # 6
Blushing:
A. results from an increase in the sympathetic neural discharge.
B. is induced by parasympathetic neural activation.
C. derives from neural connections in the cerebral cortex.
D. derives from signals originating in the hypothalamus.
E. none of these.
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Question # 7
Which of the following vasodilatory responses is most likely due to the parasympathetic nervous system?
A. salivation
B. erection
C. functional dilation of striated muscle
D. heat hyperemia in the skin
E. A. and B.
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Question # 8
The fact that the arterioles are more sensitive to neural discharge than the veins assures an appropriate precapillary to post-capillary resistance ratio.
A. True
B. False
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 9
The resistance vessels respond to sympathetic stimulation at a lower frequency than do the capacitance vessels.
A. True
B. False
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Question # 10
The tissue pressure hypothesis for intrinsic control of blood flow proposes that elevations of perfusion pressure lead to increases in tissue pressure which cause an increase in filtration and therefore a dilution of the concentration of metabolites in the intersitital fluid.
A. True
B. False
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Answer：
1.C 2.E 3.D 4.B 5.E 6.C 7.E 8.A 9.B 10.B作者: wangshuo1688 时间: 07-1-26 15:20
Endocrine System
Instructions:
Select the single best answer to the numbered question.
Question # 1
A hormone that is involved in the regulation of adrenal steroid production is secreted by
A. cells of the adrenal medulla
B. anterior pituitary corticotropes
C. cells of the pancreatic islets
D. cells of the parathyroid gland
E. thyroid follicular cells
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 2
Which of the following cells binds follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)?
A. spermatogonia
B. primary spermatocytes
C. secondary spermatocytes
D. spermatids
E. Sertoli cells
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 3
Hormones are synthesized, stored and released by regulated exocytosis from
A. liver
B. exocrine pancreas
C. gall bladder
D. enteroendocrine cells
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 4
Vitamin D
A. is produced in the dermis
B. is required for the incorporation of circulating calcium from the blood into the bones
C. deficiency results in premature calcification of growing bones
D. in excess causes the disease rickets
E. is essential for the uptake of calcium in the intestine
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 5
All of the following features are shared by granulosa luetin cells and adrenal zona fasciculata cells EXCEPT
A. abundant dense core secretory granules
B. extensive smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C. numerous mitochondria
D. accumulations of lipid droplets
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 6
When the cells of the exocrine pancreas are exposed to hormones from the enteroendocrine cells of the G.I. tract, they release
A. the enzyme enteropeptidase
B. the peptide hormone cholecystokinin (CCK)
C. the glucoregulatory hormones insulin and glucagon
D. both a bicarbonate rich fluid and enzymes that are required for digestion
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 7
All of the following statements are true for the endocrine cells in the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas EXCEPT
A. hormone signals from the G.I. tract stimulate the release of inactive enzymes
B. the blood supply first reaches the insulin-producing cells in the core of the islet
C. the glucagon-producing cells are located in the periphery of the islet
D. paracrine communication serves to coordinate the responses of the endocrine cells
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 8
The hypothalamic neurons that supply the posterior pituitary
A. synapse directly on their target cells
B. release either growth hormone or prolactin
C. contain neurosecretory granules that accumulate in axon terminals
D. release hormone into the hypophyseal portal blood system
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 9
Hyperplasia of growth hormone-secreting cells in the anterior pituitary is associated with
A. diabetes type 1
B. endemic goiter
C. acromegaly
D. adrenal hyperfunction
E. altered calcium homeostasis
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 10
Cells that have extensive smooth ER, mitochondria and lipid droplets are likely
A. to be found in the adrenal medulla
B. to be involved in the synthesis of biogenic amines
C. to be involved in the synthesis of inactive zymogens
D. to be involved in the synthesis of steroid hormones
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 11
All of the following are characteristics of the hypothalamic neurons that supply the posterior pituitary EXCEPT
A. they synapse directly on target cells
B. they secrete either oxytocin or vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone, ADH)
C. neurosecretory granules accumulate in terminal Herring bodies
D. hormone is released into the general circulatory system
E. they are supported by a type of glial cell known as pituicytes
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 12
The synthesis and release of thyroid hormones by thyroid follicular cells requires all of the following EXCEPT
A. the processing of mature hormone in regulated secretory granules
B. the extracellular storage of an inactive precursor protein
C. the uptake of dietary iodide from the blood
D. the recovery of thyroglobulin from the lumen by endocytosis
E. stimulation by an anterior pituitary hormone
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 13
The target cells for the endocrine hormones
A. possess receptors that bind specific hormones in the blood
B. respond to changes in hormone concentration in the blood
C. typically initiate a feedback response to the hormone
D. can respond to the temporal pattern (frequency) of hormone in the blood
E. all of the above
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 14
Receptors that sense serum calcium levels are found in
A. cells of the adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla
B. anterior pituitary somatotropes
C. cells of the pancreatic islets
D. cells of the parathyroid gland
E. thyroid follicular cells
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 15
Which one of the following processes accounts for the low level of proinsulin normally found in circulating blood?
A. selective binding of proinsulin by A cells within the islet
B. efficient endocytosis of proinsulin in the liver
C. efficient conversion of proinsulin to insulin within maturing secretion granules
D. efficient conversion of proinsulin to insulin before exit from the ER
E. efficient processing of proinsulin by a serum protease immediately after exocytosis
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 16
The hypophyseal portal veins comprise an essential route for releasing factor-mediated secretion of all the following pituitary hormones EXCEPT
A. ACTH
B. vasopressin
C. prolactin
D. growth hormone
E. follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 17
In response to decreases in serum calcium below normal levels, parathyroid chief cells
A. stop synthesizing parathyroid hormone
B. stop processing proparathyroid hormone
C. increase cell surface calcium receptors
D. increase parathyroid hormone secretion
E. stop dividing
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 18
Which one of the following alternatives represents the correct pathway for synthesis, storage and secretion of biogenic amines like noradrenaline (norepinephrine)?
A. proteolysis from a polypeptide precursor, storage in granules, discharge by exocytosis
B. synthesis in smooth ER and miotochondria, release through the plasma membrane without storage
C. production by lysosomal degradation, diffusion through the plasma membrane without storage
D. synthesis from decarboxylated amino acids, uptake into secretion granules, discharge by exocytosis
E. production in the ER and passage through the intracellular transport pathway without storage
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 19
which of the following cell types is easily recognized in the microscope by its rich cytoplasmic content of cholesteryl ester droplets?
A. cells of the adrenal zona fasciculata
B. A cells of the endocrine pancreas
C. thyroid folliclar cells
D. neurohypophyseal
E. none of the above
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 20
Iodination of tyrosine residues during thyroid hormone synthesis occurs
A. during synthesis of tyrosyl-tRNA
B. co-translationally during translocation of thyroglobulin in the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum
C. afer discharge of thyroglobulin into the follicular lumen
D. within the lysosome during thyroglobulin degradation
E. at the basolateral plasma membrane during release of T3 or T4
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 21
Which one of the following describes the relationship of thyroid follicuular and parafollicular cells?
A. parafollicular cells regulate thyroxine production in follicular cells
B. follicular cells regulate calcitonin production by parafollicular cells
C. parafolliclar cells produce the plasma carrier protein for thyroid hormone
D. parafollicular cells regulate iodine uptake by follicular cells
E. although closely juxtaposed, there is little or no direct functional interrelationship between the two cell types
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 22
Interruption in the function of the hypophyseal portal system would have which one of the following effects?
A. inhibition of ejection of milk from the mammary gland
B. suppression of ovulation
C. stimulation of thyrotropin (TSH) secretion
D. stimulation of epinephrine secretion by the adrenal medulla
E. suppression of bone resorption
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 23
The droplets that characteristically fill the cytoplasm of cells of the adrenal zona fasciculata contain
A. numerous low density lipoprotein receptors
B. lipofuscin
C. corticosteroid
D. cholesterol ester used for steroid synthesis
E. lysosomal hydrolases
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 24
Steroid hormone receptors are characterized by which of the following?
A. multiple transmembrane spanning domains
B. association with heterotrimeric G proteins
C. ability to translocate into the nucleus after binding their ligand
D. ability to activate Phospholipase C
E. ability to activate adenylyl clyclase
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 25
Endocrine signaling and synaptic signaling always share which one of the following characteristics
A. a specific class of cells releases a specific molecule by exocytosis
B. the receptors for the signaling molecule are on the cell surface
C. the signaling molecules are polypeptides
D. the signaling molecules are transported via the blood stream
E. the signaling molecules have transient (temporary) effects on their target cells.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 26
Parathyroid chief cells respond to low serum calcium by
A. discharging stored calcium into the blood
B. synthesizing calcitonin
C. synthesizing vitamin D
D. seceting more parathyroid hormone
E. differentiating into oxyphil cells
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 27
Serotonin, like epinephrine, is a biogenic amine In enteroendorcrine cells that produce serotonin , most of the serotonin is found
A. associated with receptors in the nucleus
B. in the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum
C. in secretion granules
D. free in the cytosol
E. bound to transporters in the plasma membrane
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 28
Adrenal cortical cells typically contain abundant smooth endoplasmic reticulum. This reflects their specialization for
A. synthesis and export of phospholipids
B. secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
C. secretion of epinephrine (adrenalin)
D. production of steroid hormones
E. secretion of lipoproteins
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 29
The hypophyseal portal system functions as part of the communication pathway in which one of the following processes?
A. glucose stimulated insulin secretion from pancreatic B cells
B. stimulation of vasopressin secretion from the neurohypophysis
C. stimulation of thyroxine secretion from thyroid follicular cells
D. release of catecholamines from adrenal medullary cells
E. secretion of parathyroid hormone
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 30
If you immunolabeled the pancreas with an antibody to insulin, which one of the following results would you obtain?
A. staining of the majority of cells in all islets
B. staining of only the most peripheral cells in all islets
C. staining of some islets but not others
D. staining of both islet and acinar cells
E. no staining because islet cells immediately secrete all the insulin they produce
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 31
In the anterior pituitary, gonadotropes
A. are directly contacted by processes of hypothalamic neurons that control their secretion
B. are the only cells that derive embryologically from the oral ectoderm
C. are distinguished from other pituitary cell types by not using exocytosis for release of hormone
D. can produce follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH) or both FSH and LH
E. are one of the classes of acidophils
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 32
Which of the following cellular events occur(s) in response to insulin secretion?
A. increased degradation of glycogen in hepatocytes
B. increased uptake of glucose from the gut lumen by intestinal enterocytes
C. increased uptake of glucose by adipocytes and muscle fibers
D. increased gluconeogenesis
E. all of the above
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 33
Epinephrine secretion by adrenal medullary cells involves stimulation of
A. epinephrine synthesis and subsequent diffusion through the plasma membrane caused by corticosterone
B. exocytosis of epinephrine containing granules by corticosterone
C. exocytosis of epinephrine containing granules by acetylcholine
D. exocytosis of epinephrine containing granules by adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
E. none of the above
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 34
Which of the following statements is true for calcitonin-secreting cells?
A. they secrete calcitonin in response to low serum calcium
B. they are located either in the walls of follicles or in the interstitium between follicles
C. they regulate thyroglobulin production in follicular cells
D. they contain abundant smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E. cancers involving these cells are unknown
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question # 35
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) stimulates which of the following processes in thyroid follicular cells?
A. uptake of iodide from the blood plasma
B. synthesis of thyroglobulin
C. iodination of thyroglobulin
D. endocytosis of thyroglobulin
E. all of the above
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Question # 36
Patients with Graves\' disease are hyperthyroid, mostly resulting from the production of circulating antibodies that structurally resemble TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone or thyrotropin) and can bind and activate the TSH receptor. Which one of the following likely characterizes their plasma levels of thyroxine (T4) and TSH?
A. high T4 and low TSH
B. high T4, and high TSH
C. low T4 and high TSH
D. low T4 and low TSH
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Question # 37
Peptide hormones
A. are produced exclusively in specialized endocrine glands
B. are mostly secreted as inactive precursors and are activated by target tissues
C. can be stored in the same intracellular organelles as biogenic amines such as epinephrine
D. are cleared slowly from the circulation after secretion and thus remain effective for hours
E. translocate across the plasma membranes of target cells and bind to cytoplasmic receptors
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Question # 38
Vasopressin but not ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)
A. requires enzymes located in mitochondria for its synthesis
B. is produced by processing of a high molecular weight hormone precursor
C. undergoes axonal transport before secretion
D. binds to a carrier protein in the blood plasma
E. stimulates steroid secretion by target cells
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Question # 39
When cells of the adrenal zona glomerulosa are exposed to angiotensin II, the major secretory product they release
A. stimulates ACTH secretion from the anterior pituitary
B. stimulates glycogen breakdown in hepatocytes
C. stimulates sodium recovery by distal tubules of renal nephrons
D. inhibits water recovery by collecting tubules of renal nephrons
E. accelerates spermatogenesis
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Question # 40
Iodinated thyroglobulin levels in the circulation are nearly always negligible because thyroglobulin
A. is efficiently filtered by the kidneys and excreted in urine
B. is rapidly phagocytosed by macrophages
C. undergoes efficient transcytosis in the liver and is excreted in bile
D. never leaves the lumen of the thyroid follicle
E. is mostly degraded in lysosomes of follicular cells
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Question # 41
Which of the following is released from the axon terminals in the pars nervosa [posterior pituitary]?
A. Vasopressin
B. Corticotropin
C. Growth hormone releasing factor
D. Thyroxine [T4]
E. Estrogen
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Question # 42
Releases glucagon in response to hypoglycemia
A. Pancreatic A [alpha] cells
B. Pars distalis [anterior pituitary]
C. Adrenal medulla
D. Adrenal cortex
E. Pancreatic B [beta] cells
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Question # 43
In the islets of Langerhans
A. the alpha cells out-number the peripheral beta cells
B. the delta cells produce glucagon
C. the delta cells are destroyed in type I diabetes
D. the insulin producing beta cells are located in the core
E. there are extensive intercalated ducts
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Question # 44
Vasopressin and oxytocin are synthesized in the
A. pars distalis
B. hypothalamus
C. pars nervosa
D. pars intermedia
E. infundibulum
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Question # 45
In this diagram of the Adrenal, Layers A, B and C comprise the adrenal cortex; D is the adrenal medulla. The layer that is recognizable because of the very obvious cytoplasmic lipid droplets is:
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. All of the above
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Question # 46
In this diagram of the Adrenal, Layers A, B and C comprise the adrenal cortex; D is the adrenal medulla. Biogenic amines are released by exocytosis from which layer(s)?
A. A only
B. B only
C. B and C only
D. C only
E. D only
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Maintenance of the normally acidic pH of the vaginal lumen is important because the low pH inhibits the growth of undesirable microorganisms such as yeasts. This normally acidic pH is the result of
A. acid secretion by vaginal glands
B. recovery of bicarbonate by blood vessels in the lamina propria
C. the acidic nature of the carbohydrates in cervical mucus
D. exchange of H+ for K+ by the epithelial cells
E. bacterial metabolism of glycogen
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Question # 2
All of the following statements about the syncytial trophoblast layer of placental villi are true EXCEPT
A. divides and differentiates into cytotrophoblast cells
B. secretes progesterone
C. is the source of urinary chorionic gonadotrphin (hCG)
D. mediates the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide
E. is in direct contact with maternal blood
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Question # 3
The mucosa of the uterine cervix is noted for its
A. unchanging histological and functional characteristics through the uterine cycle
B. ciliated and absorptive epithelial cells
C. mucus secretion
D. integrins that bind ligands on the trophoblast
E. responsiveness to luteinizing hormone (LGH)
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Question # 4
All of the following statements about granulosa cells during the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle are true EXCEPT
A. secrete estrogen in response to stimulation by FSH
B. surround a primary oocyte
C. increase in number with time
D. give rise to cells of the theca interna
E. comprise the cumulus oophorus and corona radiata
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Question # 5
Loss of a large portion of the uterine endometrium is initiated at the beginning of the menstrual phase of the uterine cycle by changes in
A. straight arterioles of the endometrium
B. coiled arterioles of the endometrium
C. helical endometrial gland cells
D. decidual cells of the stroma
E. contractility of myometrial cells
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Question # 6
A non-lactating mammary gland cannot produce milk because the gland contains few or no
A. lobules
B. lactiferous sinuses
C. intralobular ducts
D. alveoli
E. fat cells
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Question # 7
The cuboidal epithelial cell of alveoli in the mammary gland
A. synthesize and secrete steroid hormones
B. release proteins by exocytosis and lipid by an apocrine secretion mechanism
C. contract in response to oxytocin from the posterior pituitary gland
D. synthesize immunoglobulin A (IgA)
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Question # 8
Which of the following statements is true concerning the ovarian follicles of a normal 25-year woman at day 8 of a 28-day menstrual cycle
A. the majority are destined to degenerate
B. nearly all contain primary oocytes
C. they are a mixture of primordial, primary and secondary follicles
D. some secrete estrogen in response to FSH from the pituitary gland
E. all of the above
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Question # 9
In the human placenta, maternal blood is in direct contact with
A. fetal capillary endothelium
B. fetal mesenchyme
C. basement membrane of fetal capillaries
D. syncytial trophoblast
E. none of the above - maternal blood does not directly contact fetal tissue
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Question # 10
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
A. is a steroid hormone
B. stimulates the ovarian corpus luteum
C. is synthesized and secreted by decidual cells
D. increases in concentration in the blood in the luteal phase of the normal menstrual cycle
E. is a component of fibrinoid
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Question # 11
Structure in mammals that is responsible for the block to polyspermy and for preventing the cross fertilization between species
A. plasma membrane of oocyte
B. zona pellucida
C. granulosa cells
D. theca interna
E. theca externa
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Question # 12
Synthesis of androgens occurs in the
A. oocyte
B. zona pellucida
C. granulosa cells
D. theca interna
E. theca externa
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Question # 13
An ovary of a normal six-year-old person contains
A. hundreds of thousands of primary oocytes
B. follicles in varying stages of development (e.g., primordial, primary, secondary follicles)
C. primary occytes, secondary oocytes, and mature ova
D. corpora albicantia
E. no follicles
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Question # 14
The theca interna of ovarian follicles
A. develops from connective tissue cells
B. participates in synthesis of the zona pellucida
C. produces fluid found in the follicular antrum
D. is discharged from the ovary at ovulation
E. converts androgens to estrogen
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Question # 15
Fatty components are added to milk by
A. exocytosis of secretory granules
B. sloughing of fat-containing cells
C. apocrine secretion
D. transcytosis of lipoprotein complexes
E. the synthetic activity of enzymes in milk
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Question # 16
The major source of ovarian progesterone in the second half of a normal menstrual cycle is a cell type that contains abundant smooth endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria. In the first half of the cycle these cells had a different appearance and would have been recognized as
A. oocytes
B. theca interna
C. theca externa
D. granulosa cells
E. medullary fibroblasts
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Question # 17
All of the following are characteristics of the uterine endometrium during the second half of the normal menstrual cycle EXCEPT
A. surface epithelium contains ciliated cells and secretory cells
B. the tissue is under the influence of progesterone
C. basalis and functionalis layers are present
D. glands are straight and contain many mitotic figures
E. lumina of glands contain secretions
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Question # 18
Which of the following structures does NOT separate maternal blood from fetal blood in the human placenta?
A. endothelium of maternal vessels
B. syncytiotrophoblast
C. bsement membrane
D. endothelium of capillaries of chorionic villi
E. extracellular matrix of fetal mesenchyme
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Question # 19
The process of ovarian follicular atresia
A. occurs in approximately one follicle each month
B. ceases at puberty
C. is initiated in a Graafian follicle after it undergoes ovulation
D. occurs in the majority of follicles
E. signifies the presence of an endocrinological abnormality
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Question # 20
The main histological change that mammary glands undergo during pregnancy is an increase in the
A. number of fat cells
B. number of lobes
C. amount of intralobular connective tissue
D. number of alveoli
E. stratification of the epithelial cells of intralobular ducts and alveoli
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Question # 21
A transition from simple columnar to stratified squamous epithelium occurs in the
A. oviduct
B. vagina
C. epididymis
D. cervix
E. vas deferens
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Question # 22
The majority of follicles found in the ovaries of a female infant at birhth subsequently
A. develop to the mature (Graafian) follicle stage
B. become transformed into theca lutein cells
C. remain essential unchanged into old age
D. undergo atresia
E. break up into cords of epithelial cells
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Question # 23
The ovaries of a normal six year old girl contain
A. follicles in different stages of maturation
B. corpora lutea
C. germ cells arrested in prophase of the first meiotic division
D. germ cells arrested in metaphase of the second meiotic division
E. no germ cells
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Question # 24
During the first half of pregnancy, tertiary (definitive) placental villi contain all of the following EXCEPT
A. cyotrophoblast cells
B. syncytiotrophoblast
C. fetal mesenchyme
D. fetal blood vessels
E. maternal blood vessels
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Question # 25
During a normal menstrual cycle, ovulation at mid-cycle is preceded by each of the following EXCEPT
A. luteinization of granulosa and theca interna cells
B. in increase in LH from the pituitary gland
C. an oocyte completing the first meiotic division
D. an increase in the amount of follicular fluid
E. detachment of an oocyte and the corona radiata from the remainder of the follicular epithelium
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Question # 26
During a normal menstrual cycle, ovulation at mid-cycle is preceded by each of the following EXCEPT
A. luteinization of granulosa and theca interna cells
B. an increase in LH from the pituitary gland
C. an oocyte completing the first meiotic division
D. an increase in the amount of follicular fluid
E. detachment of an oocyte and the corona radiata from the remainder of the follicular epithelium
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Question # 27
Cells from the epithelium covering the part of the cervix that projects into the vagina are included in scrapings for Pap smears. Normally the epithelim on the surface of this part of the cervix (the porto vaginalis) is predominantly
A. simple, columnar, mucus-screening
B. simple columnar, ciliated
C. stratified cuboidal
D. stratified squamous
E. simple squamous
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Question # 28
Cells from the epithelium covering the part of the cervix that projects into the vagina are included in scrapings for Pap smears. Normally the epithelium on the surface of this part of the cervix (the portio vaginalis) is predominantly
A. simple columnar, mucus-secreting
B. simple columnar, ciliated
C. stratified cuboidal
D. stratified squamous
E. simple squamous
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Question # 29
Cytotrophoblast cells
A. divide and differentiate into syncytiotrophoblast
B. synthesize human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
C. are the main source of placental progesterone
D. cooperate with fetal organs to produce estrogen
E. play a role in regulation of the immune response as part of the mononuclear phagocyte system
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Question # 30
Suppose that you were able to examine two histological sections of mammary gland tissue obtained at different times from the same female individual. Lobules in the first sample contain scattered small ducts lined with simple cuboidal epithelium. In the second sample, the lobules contain many more epithelial elements, representing numerous alveoli as well as small ducts. The two samples most likely were obtained
A. before and after puberty
B. during a normal menstrual cycle and during pregnancy
C. during pregnancy and lactation
D. in the follicular and secretory phases of a menstrual cycle
E. before and after menopause
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Question # 31
Suppose that you were able to examine two histological sections of mammary gland tissue at different times from the same female individual. Lobules in the first sample contain scattered small ducts lined with simple cuboidal epithelium. In the second sample, the lobules contain many more epithelial elements, representing numerous alveoli as well as small ducts. The two samples most likely were obtained
A. before and after puberty
B. during a normal menstrual cycle and during preganancy
C. during preganancy and during lactation
D. in the follicular and secretory phases of a menstrual cycle
E. before and after menopause
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Question # 32
By two weeks after ovulation when fertilization and normal uterine implantation have occurred, the trophoblast is surrounded by and is in contact with
A. uterine surface epithelium
B. endometrial connective tissue and maternal blood
C. myometrial smooth muscle
D. corona radiata
E. cervical mucous glands
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Question # 33
Which of the following statements best describes the ovarian cortex of a normal six year old girl?
A. many thousands of follicles are present
B. follicles are absent, because they have not yet developed
C. a total of abot 300 follicles is present: those which will develop to maturity during reproductive life
D. oocytes are present, but at this age they lack surrounding follicular cells
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Question # 34
Atresia of ovarian follicles
A. occurs only at the antral stage of follicular development
B. involves degeneration of the oocyte but not the follicular epithelium
C. is the histological reflection of an endocrine abnormality
D. is observed throughout reproductive life
E. is stimulated by the presence of a corpus albicans
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Question # 35
Secondary follicles are characterized by
A. accumulation of fluid between follicular (granulosa) cells
B. synthesis of androgens by the granulosa cells
C. presence of a zona pellucida between granulosa cells and theca interna
D. a secondary oocyte
E. all of the above
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Question # 36
Which of the following statements about fertilization is correct?
A. the female gamete is an oocyte in prophase of the first meiotic division
B. fusion of the gametes normally takes place in the uterus
C. the oocyte is surrounded by a zona pellucida and cells of the corona radiata
D. the sperm plasma membrane overlying the principal piece fuses with the oocyte\'s plasma membrane
E. the uterine endometrium is in the proliferative phase
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Question # 37
In the endometrium of the uterus, the basalis layer is
A. supplied by arteries that first traverse the functionalis
B. supplied by blood vessels which undergo little change with the menstrual cycle
C. composed mainly of bundles of smooth muscle
D. shed during menstruation
E. devoid of endometrial glands
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Question # 38
Glycoprotein components of the zona pellucida are currently believed to play a role in all of the following EXCEPT
A. capacitation of spermatozoa
B. induction of the acrosome reaction
C. binding of sperm
D. blocking polyspermy (fertilization of the egg by more than one spermatozoon)
E. restriction of fertilization to sperm of the same species
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Question # 39
The mucosa of the vagina
A. is covered by columnar epithelium
B. contains numerous small mucous glands
C. sheds glycogen-containing cells into the lumen
D. is more susceptible than uterine and oviductal mucosa to gonococcal invasion
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Question # 40
The ovarian tumors with the most ominous prognosis are those derived from
A. germ cells
B. granulosa cells
C. cells of the surface germinal epithelium
D. cells of the corpus luteum
E. cells of the theca interna
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Question # 41
The mucosa of the endocervical canal of the uterine cervix
A. is covered by stratified squamous epithelium
B. contains much smooth muscle
C. is normally the site of fertilization
D. fails to respond to cyclic variations in ovarian hormones
E. secretes mucus
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Question # 42
All of the following are features of secondary ovarian follicles EXCEPT
A. possess an antrum filled with follicular fluid
B. contain a mature ovum
C. secrete estrogen
D. contain a cumulus oophorus
E. respond to FSH from the pituitary gland
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Question # 43
An apocrine type of secretion is characteristic of the
A. oviductal epithelium
B. Leydig cells of the testis
C. granulosa cells of ovarian follicles
D. lactotropes (mammotropic cells) of the anterior pituitary
E. alveoli of the mammary gland
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Question # 44
Which of the following synthesize(s) androgens as a step in the production of estrogens
A. Oocyte nucleus
B. Zona pellucida
C. Granulosa cells
D. Theca interna
E. Theca externa
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The pulmonary alveolus
A. has epithelial cells which secrete a thin serous fluid to help raise the level of moisture in the air space
B. is partially lined by ciliated cells which help remove particles drawn in with inhaled air
C. undergoes a cyclic decrease in volume with each breath, thanks in part to recoil of elastic fibers in its wall
D. is richly vascularized with fenestrated capillaries
Which of the following is a function characteristically associated with \"respiratory epithelium\"?
A. trapping of particles from passing air for elimination by swallowing
B. transmission of oxygen from air into subepithelial capillaries
C. use of ciliated epithelial cells to sense odors in passing air
D. protection of the luminal surface of vocal folds
E. secretion of surfactant
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Question # 3
Air inhaled through the nose is \"conditioned\" to protect the tissues of the deeper airways. For conditioning the air, nasal tissue possesses all of the following features EXCEPT
A. secretions supplied from goblet cells in the epithelium
B. generation of heat by mitochondria packed in the low/short cells of the epithelium
C. secretions from sero-mucous glands in the subepithelial connective tissues
D. venous plexuses at selected places in the subepithelial connective tissues
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Question # 4
The shortening of intrapulmonary conducting airways following relaxation of the diaphragm results from
A. negative pressure in pleural cavity during exhalation
B. contraction of voluntary muscle in walls of airways
C. recoil of longitudinally oriented elastic fibers
D. decrease in hydrostatic pressure in pulmonary arteries
E. secretion of surfactant by bronchiolar epithelial (Clara) cells
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Question # 5
The large numbers of alveolar macrophages which daily migrate into lumens of alveoli are thought to be derived from
A. fibroblasts in the interalveolar septa
B. dendritic cells of lymphoid tissue
C. type II alveolar epithelial cells
D. monocytes in circulating blood
E. smooth muscle cells of pulmonary arteries
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Question # 6
Goblet cells accompanied by ciliated epithelial cells occur in all of the following EXCEPT
A. nasal cavity
B. trachea
C. bronchi
D. alveoli
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Question # 7
Type II pneumocytes function primarily
A. as scavenger cells for inhaled particles
B. in gas exchange
C. to secrete surfactant and replace type I pneumocytes
D. to absorb and detoxify noxious gases
E. to move mucus that is secreted by goblet cells
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Question # 8
The vessels found in alveolar walls include
A. only capillaries
B. only arterioles
C. capillaries and arterioles
D. capillaries and lymphatics
E. capillaries, arterioles and lymphatics
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Question # 9
Pulmonary alveoli characteristically have
A. smooth muscle in their walls to help expel air depleted of oxygen
B. ciliated epithelial cells
C. surfaces coated with a detergent-like material to facilitate alveolar inflation
D. imperforate walls between adjacent alveoli to retard the spread of pathogenic organisms
E. an epithelial lining incapable of regenerating itself after injury
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Question # 10
Capillaries of pulmonary alveoli are
A. fenestrated to enhance uptake of air from the alveolar lumen
B. larger in diameter than average systemic capillaries
C. separated from air solely by their own epithelium and basal lamina
D. typically surrounded by dense concentrations of lymphocytes
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Question # 11
\"Respiratory\" (i.e., ciliated pseudostratified columnar) epithelium is found in all of the following structures EXCEPT
A. nasal cavity
B. trachea
C. extrapulmonary bronchi
D. intrapulmonary bronci
E. alveoli
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Question # 12
The principal function of which of the following is most likely to aid in alveolar inflation?
A. interalveolar collagenous fibers
B. interalveolar elastic fibers
C. Type II pneumocytes
D. smooth muscle cells
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Question # 13
Components of bronchi function in respiration in all of the following ways EXCEPT
A. shortening airways and reducing dead air space
B. protecting lungs from accumulation of particulate materials
C. secreting immunoglobulins to combat intra-airway antigens
D. supporting airways against collapse during exhalation
E. synthesizing and secreting surfactant materials
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Question # 14
Type II (great alveolar) cells in the pulmonary alveolus are sources of which of the following?
A. alveolar macrophages
B. squamous epithelial (Type I) cells
C. pulmonary surfactant
D. A, B and C
E. B and C
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Question # 15
Which of the following is a non-cartilaginous airway which is paired with a pulmonary arterial vessel?
A. Larynx
B. Trachea
C. Bronchus
D. Bronchiole
E. Alveolar duct
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Question # 16
The alveolar barriers that separate inspired air from the blood operate best when they prevent bacterial invasion but minimally obstruct diffusion of oxygen into erythrocytes. These barriers can be expected to be composed of
A. no epithelium at all
B. simple squamous epithelium
C. simple cuboidal epithelium
D. pseudostratified epithelium
E. stratified squamous epithelium
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Question # 17
Which of the following is characterized by the presence of both skeletal muscle and cartilage?
A. Nasal cavity
B. Larynx
C. Trachea
D. Bronchioles
E. Alveoli
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Question # 18
Bronchioles differ from bronchi in all of the following respects EXCEPT:
A. Absence of cartilage
B. Presence of smooth muscle
C. Type of epithelium
D. Presence of Clara cells
E. Absence of sub-mucosal glands
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Question # 19
Which of the following is a correct order for the movement of air during inhalation? Note that not all structures through which air moves may be listed.
A. larynx, naso-pharynx, trachea, bronchioles, bronchi
B. naso-pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles, bronchi
C. naso-pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles
D. nasal cavity, naso-pharynx, larynx, bronchioles, bronchi
E. nasal cavity, trachea, larynx, bronchi, bronchioles
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Question # 20
Emphysema is associated with defects in the function of:
A. smooth muscle
B. reticular fibers
C. hyaline cartilage
D. elastic fibers
E. respiratory epithelium
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Question # 21
The function of alveolar macrophages is most like that of:
A. Clara cells
B. Kupffer cells
C. Type I pneumocytes
D. Type II pneumocytes
E. Goblet cells
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Question # 22
Which of the following portions of the respiratory tract lack smooth muscle?
A. Trachea
B. Bronchi
C. Bronchioles
D. Alveolar Ducts
E. Alveoli
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Question # 23
All of the following are characteristics of capillaries found within the alveolar septa EXCEPT:
A. They have larger diameter than most capillaries
B. They have lower pressure than most capillaries
C. They are somatic, continuous capillaries
D. There is transport across the capillary wall using membranous vesicles
E. They lack a basement membrane
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Question # 24
A unique feature of the olfactory epithelium is the presence of:
A. Goblet cells
B. Neurons that are replaced throughout life
C. Hair cells
D. Receptors for taste
E. Clara cells
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Question # 25
Which of the following statements about the respiratory tract is true?
A. Trachealis muscle contracts during inhalation
B. Diaphragm contracts during exhalation
C. Vocalis muscle is smooth muscle
D. As one moves from the beginning to the end of the brochiolar tree, Goblet cells disappear before ciliated cells disappear
E. Hyaline cartilage is found only in the trachea
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Question # 26
Larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles and alveolar septa have which of the following in common:
A. Respiratory epithelium
B. Smooth muscle
C. Hyaline cartilage
D. Elastic fibers
E. Striated muscle
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Question # 27
All of the following represent cells involved in the protective mechanisms of the respiratory tract EXCEPT:
A. Clara cells
B. Alveolar Macrophages
C. Ciliated epithelial cells
D. Goblet cells
E. Type I pneumocytes
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Question # 28
Respiratory epithelium and olfactory epithelium are alike in which of the following properties?
A. Both contain goblet cells
B. Both are pseudostratified epithelia
C. Both contain bipolar sensory neurons
D. Both contain cells with motile cilia
E. Both contain Clara cells
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Question # 29
Which of the following is NOT a feature that distinguishes bronchioles from bronchi?
A. Absence of cartilage
B. Presence of smooth muscle
C. A pseudostratified columnar epithelium
D. Absence of sub-mucosal glands
E. Presence of Clara cells
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Question # 30
Which of the following is NOT a part of the gas exchange portion of the respiratory tract?
A. Terminal bronchioles
B. Respiratory bronchioles
C. Alveolar ducts
D. Alveoli
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Question # 31
All of the following cells are found associated with alveoli EXCEPT:
A. Type I pneumocytes
B. Type II pneumocytes
C. Clara cells
D. Macrophages
E. Endothelial cells
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Question # 32
All of the following are characteristics of Type II pneumocytes EXCEPT:
A. Contain organelles called lamellar bodies
B. Secrete surfactant
C. Phagocytize particulates reaching the alveoli
D. Form tight junctions with Type I pneumocytes
E. Divide to produce both Type I and Type II cells
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Question # 33
Which of the following is NOT a significant activity of the nasal cavity?
A. moisening air
B. filtering air
C. absorption of oxygen into blood
D. sampling odors in air
E. warming air
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Question # 34
In order for oxygen in the inspired air to reach hemoglobin, it must diffuse across all of the following structures EXCEPT:
A. Layer of surfactant
B. An endothelial cell
C. A Type I pneumocyte
D. One or more smooth muscle cells
E. The plasma membrane of the erythrocyte
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Question # 35
Larynx, trachea, bronchioles and alveolar septa have which of the following in common?
A. Respiratory epithelium
B. Smooth muscle
C. Hyaline cartilage
D. Striated muscle
E. Elastic fibers
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Question # 36
In order for oxygen to diffuse from the alveolar air spaces to the site of its binding to hemoglobin, it must diffuse across how many plasma membranes?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
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Question # 37
There are some interesting similarities and contrasts in the structural organization of the glomerular filtration barrier versus the alveolar gas diffusion barrier. In this regard, which of the following is NOT a true statement?
A. Both the filtration barrier and the gas diffusion barrier contain two epithelial layers.
B. Glomerular capillaries are fenetrated capillaries while alveolar capillaries are continuous capillaries.
C. Alveolar capillaries have a smaller diameter and a higher hydrostatic pressure than glomerular capillaries
D. Both the filtration barrier and the gas diffusion barrier include at least one basement membrane.
E. Type I pneumocytes in the alveolus are connected by tight (sealing) junctions while the glomerular podocytes are not.
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Answer：
1.C 2.A 3.B 4.C 5.D 6.D 7.C 8.A 9.C 10.B
11.E 12.C 13.E 14.E 15.D 16.B 17.B 18.B 19.C 20.D
21.B 22.E 23.E 24.B 25.D 26.D 27.E 28.B 29.B 30.A
31.C 32.C 33.C 34.D 35.E 36.D 37.C作者: wangshuo1688 时间: 07-1-26 15:22
Gastrointestinal System
Instructions:
Select the single best answer to the numbered question.
Gastrointestinal Smooth Muscle
Question # 1
In contrast to the situation in skeletal muscle fibers, the resting membrane potential of many gastrointestinal smooth muscle cells has a large contribution from the electrogenicity of the Na+,K+-ATPase.
A. The statement is TRUE.
B. The statement is FALSE.
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Question # 2
The smooth muscle cells of the circular muscle of the GI tract are electrically coupled by numerous gap junctions between neighboring cells.
A. The statement is TRUE.
B. The statement is FALSE.
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Question # 3
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. The resting membrane potential of GI smooth muscle tends to be smaller in magnitude than that of skeletal muscle.
B. Action potentials in GI smooth muscle are not blocked by tetrodotoxin.
C. Longitudinal GI smooth muscle cells are less well-coupled electrically than are circular smooth muscle cells.
D. Slow waves are generated by GI smooth muscle cells near the inside of the circular muscle layer.
E. Contraction of GI smooth muscle cells may occur in the absence of action potentials.
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Question # 4
Which statement about gastrointestinal smooth muscle is NOT correct?
A. The cells of the circular layer of gastrointestinal smooth muscle are coupled by numerous gap junctions.
B. The length-tension curve of gastrointestinal smooth muscle is broader than that of skeletal muscle
C. In human stomach slow waves occur about 3 times per minute.
D. Action potentials in gastrointestinal smooth muscle do not involve fast sodium channels.
E. None of the above.
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Question # 5
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Gastrointestinal smooth muscle cells typically have smaller resting membrane potentials than skeletal muscle cells.
B. The electrogenic character of the Na+,K+-ATPase makes a small contribution to the resting membrane potential of GI smooth muscle cells.
C. Slow waves elicit contraction of some GI smooth muscle even in the absence of action potentials.
D. Many GI smooth muscle cells are electrically coupled to their neighbors.
E. Action potentials in GI smooth muscle cells do not involve fast sodium channels.
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Question # 6
Which of the following statements about the innervation of gastrointestinal smooth musle is NOT true?
A. There are no true neuromuscular junctions in gastrointestinal smooth muscle.
B. The predominant innervation of the circular muscle layer is inhibitory.
C. Most of the nerve fibers that innervate gastrointestinal smooth muscle cells have their cell bodies in the enteric ganglia.
D. Most of the nerve fibers that innervate gastrointestinal smooth muscle cells are either cholinergic or adrenergic.
E. Gastrointestinal smooth muscle is influenced by reflex arcs, all of whose components are located in the gastrointestinal tract.
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Question # 7
Which of the following statements about gastrointestinal smooth muscle is NOT true?
A. Its length-tension curve is broader than that of skeletal muscle.
B. Cells of the circular layer have numerous gap junctions.
C. Contractions are stronger when action potentials occur on the crests of the slow waves.
D. Rhythmic oscillations of the resting membrane potential occur.
E. Tone is due to a baseline level of spontaneous action potentials in the smooth muscle cells.
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Question # 8
Which of the following statements about gastrointestinal smooth muscle is NOT true?
A. Slow waves occur at frequencies from 3 to 12 per minute. The frequency is characteristic of the various segments of the GI tract.
B. Slow waves are generated by interstitial cells. Calcium channels contribute to the depolarizing phase of the slow waves.
C. Circular muscle cells are well coupled electrically and have numerous gap junctions.
D. Calcium that enters during an action potential participates in excitation-contraction coupling.
E. Contractions do not occur in the absence of action potentials.
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Question # 9
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. GI smooth muscle may contract in the absence of action potentials.
B. Nerves and hormones can influence the frequency and amplitude of slow waves.
C. The electrogenicity of the Na,K-ATPase contributes significantly to the resting potential in GI smooth muscle.
D. Slow waves are generated in neurons of the myenteric plexus.
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Answer：
1.A 2.A 3.D 4.E 5.B 6.D 7.E 8.E 9.D
Gastric Motility
Question # 1
Gastric smooth muscle may contract in response to the depolarizing phase of the slow wave even when action potentials do not occur at the peak of the slow wave.
A. The statement is TRUE.
B. The statement is FALSE.
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Question # 2
Indigestible particles that are several millimeters in diameter tend to remain in the stomach between meals and are emptied when the following meal stimulates gastric contractions.
A. The statement is TRUE.
B. The statement is FALSE.
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Question # 3
Gastric contractions begin in mid-body and appear to travel toward the pylorus, growing in strength as they travel.
A. The statement is TRUE.
B. The statement is FALSE.
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Question # 4
The presence of acid, fats, peptides, and hypertonicity are sensed by the duodenal mucosa and elicit hormonal responses that regulate gastric emptying. Some of these hormones increase the rate of gastric emptying, others decrease the rate of gastric emptying.
A. The statement is TRUE.
B. The statement is FALSE.
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Question # 5
Action potentials on the crests of slow waves in the stomach are not required for contraction of gastric smooth muscle, but when action potentials do occur, the force of contraction is much greater.
A. The statement is TRUE.
B. The statement is FALSE.
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Question # 6
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Contractions of the gastric fundus are absent or very weak.
B. In a fed individual, the pyloric sphincter opens only briefly in response to each peristaltic wave.
C. Peristaltic waves begin in mid-body and travel toward the pylorus.
D. Gastrin enhances the force of gastric contractions.
E. During gastric contractions that occur during fasting, the pylorus does not open as wide as it does during contractions that occur in a fed individual.
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Question # 7
An indigestible object about 5 mm in diameter is likely to be emptied from the stomach into the duodenum by contractions during the gastric phase.
A. The statement is TRUE.
B. The statement is FALSE.
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Question # 8
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Distention of the duodenum evokes neural reflexes that decrease the rate of gastric emptying.
B. Fats in the duodenum elicit the release of CCK and GIP.
C. Gastrin released from the duodenum enhances both antral contractions and the constriction of the pyloric sphincter.
D. Secretin enhances the strength of antral contractions.
E. Hypertonicity in the duodenum results in decreased rates of gastric emptying.
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Question # 9
Which statement about gastric motility is NOT correct?
A. The gastric slow wave resembles the cardiac action potential in shape.
B. Weak contractions of the fundus and body of the stomach subserve the reservoir function of the stomach.
C. Liquids are emptied a good deal more rapidly from the stomach than digestible solids.
D. Larger indigestible objects, that remain in the stomach during emptying of a meal, are often emptied during the active contractile phase of the migrating myoelectric complex.
E. None of the above.
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Question # 10
Which statement about gastric motility is NOT correct?
A. When action potential spikes occur, they result in increased contractile force.
B. A wave of contraction begins in mid-body and moves toward the pylorus, gaining in contractile strength as it moves.
C. The pylorus is constricted for a longer time than it is relaxed.
D. Secretin, a hormone released by the duodenum, acts to increase the rate of gastric emptying.
E. None of the above.
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Question # 11
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. The fundus and body relax in response to being filled. This is called receptive relaxation.
B. Peristaltic contractions of the stomach begin in the middle of the body and travel toward the pylorus, gaining in strength as they travel.
C. The force of contraction of gastric smooth muscle is independent of the presence of action potentials on top of the slow waves.
D. Indigestible objects in the stomach are likely to be emptied during the migrating myoelectric complex.
E. When gastric smooth muscle is depolarized, the theshold for contraction is reached before the threshold for firing action potentials.
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Question # 12
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Just after a meal, gastric contractions occur at the frequency of gastric slow waves, about 3 per minute.
B. CCK and gastrin enhance the force of gastric contractions and increase the tone of the pyloric sphincter.
C. During the contractions of the migrating myoelectric complex in the stomach the pyloric sphincter opens wider and for a longer time than during emptying of a meal.
D. Nerves and hormones can modulate the strength of gastric contractions, but do not influence their frequency.
E. Secretin, released from the duodenum in response to acid, has the effect of slowing the rate of gastric emptying.
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Question # 13
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. The fundus and upper body are relaxed when food enters the stomach.
B. The only vigorous mixing in the stomach occurs in the antrum.
C. Peristaltic waves in the stomach begin in mid-body and travel toward the pylorus.
D. In a fed individual the pyloric sphincter is open about 40% of the time.
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The transport protein directly responsible for the secretion of H+ by parietal cells uses the energy of the K+ gradient to actively secrete H+ into the gastric gland lumen.
A. The statement is TRUE.
B. The statement is FALSE.
The transport of chloride ions into gastric juice is known to be due to a primary active transport system.
A. The statement is TRUE.
B. The statement is FALSE.
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Question # 3
During the cephalic phase of gastric acid secretion, the rate of HCl secretion may be 40 to 50% of the maximal rate.
A. The statement is TRUE.
B. The statement is FALSE.
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Question # 4
Some of the effects of acetylcholine and gastrin on HCl secretion are mediated by histamine released from ECL (enterochromaffin-like) cells in the gastric mucosa.
A. The statement is TRUE.
B. The statement is FALSE.
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Question # 5
The cephalic phase of gastric secretion can be totally blocked by sectioning the vagus nerves to the stomach. Gastrin- mediated HCl secretion occurs during the cephalic phase.
A. The statement is TRUE.
B. The statement is FALSE.
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Question # 6
To protect the stomach from its own secretions there is a reciprocal relationship between the rates of HCl and pepsinogen secretion.
A. The statement is TRUE.
B. The statement is FALSE.
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Question # 7
Inhibition of either mucus or bicarbonate secretion by the cells that line the stomach would diminish the effectiveness of the \"gastric mucosal barrier\".
A. The statement is TRUE.
B. The statement is FALSE.
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Question # 8
Individuals with gastric ulcers typically secrete less acid in response to a given stimulus than normal individuals.
A. The statement is TRUE.
B. The statement is FALSE.
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Question # 9
Which statement about gastric secretion is NOT correct?
A. At high rates of secretion the concentration of H+ in gastric juice rises.
B. Duodenal ulcer patients secrete HCl at a greater rate than normal patients in response to stimulation by agonists.
C. H+ is actively secreted into the lumen of the secretory canaliculus by the action of the H+, K+-ATPase.
D. Cl- enters the parietal cell across the basolateral membrane against an electrochemical potential gradient.
E. None of the above.
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Question # 10
Which statement about gastric secretion is NOT true.
A. An effective \"gastric mucosal barrier\" requires the secretion of both bicarbonate and mucus by gastric epithelial cells.
B. When a parietal cell is stimulated to secrete, tubovesicles fuse with the plasma membrane that lines the secretory canaliculus.
C. The rates of secretion of HCl and intrinsic factor are most often reciprocally related.
D. G cells in the pyloric glands release gastrin when stimulated by peptides and amino acids.
E. None of the above.
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Question # 11
Which statement about gastric secretion is NOT correct.
A. Histamine, gastrin, and acetylcholine are three physiological agonists for HCl secretion by parietal cells.
B. H2 receptor blockers can block most HCl secretion evoked by gastrin or or acetylcholine.
C. Truncal vagotomy will abolish the gastric phase of HCl secretion.
D. Early in the intestinal phase, HCl secretion is stimulated by gastrin released from G cells in the duodenum and upper jejunum.
E. None of the above.
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Question # 12
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Acetylcholine, histamine, and gastrin are agonists of HCl secretion at the parietal cell level.
B. When parietal cells are stimulated to secrete, tubovesicles containing the K+,H+-ATPase fuse with the membrane of the secretory canaliculus.
B. C.Both H+ and Cl- are actively secreted into the gastric lumen .
D. The chloride-bicarbonate exchanger in the basolateral plasma membrane of the parietal cell plays an important role in HCl secretion.
E. None of the above.
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Question # 13
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. H2 receptor antagonists can diminish gastric acid secretion in response to acetylcholine, gastrin, or histamine.
B. The effects of omeprazole on gastric acid secretion are more long lasting than the effects of H2 receptor antagonists.
C. The rate of HCl secretion during the cephalic phase can be quite high, but the amount of HCl secreted is a small fraction of the total secreted in response to a meal.
D. Distention of the body and fundus elicit reflexes that inhibit HCl secretion.
E. Low pH in the antrum dramatically inhibits HCl secretion in response to all stimuli.
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Question # 14
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Secretion of both mucus and bicarbonate is vital for the function of the gastric mucosal barrier.
B. Some of the stimuli that enhance HCl secretion by parietal cells also stimulate chief cells to release pepsinogens.
C. H2 histamine receptor antagonists and blockers of the K+,H+-ATPase are equally effective in suppressing gastric HCl secretion.
D. An acid-loving bacterium may play an important role in gastric ulcer disease in many cases.
E. Patients with duodenal ulcers tend to be less sensitive to secretin and other hormones that are released by the duodenum and inhibit HCl secretion.
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Question # 15
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Hypersecretion of HCl conduces to formation of duodenal ulcers.
B. H. pylori is responsible for most peptic ulcers that are not caused by medication.
C. H. pylori damages the gastric mucosa by invading the gastric epithelial cells.
D. Aspirin and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs diminish the effectiveness of the gastric mucosal barrier.
E. Long term therapy with omeprazole or an H2 receptor antagonist will not permanently cure ulcers due to H. pylori.
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During the cephalic phase, pancreatic secretion is stimulated by CCK released from the duodenal mucosa in response to vagal impulses.
A. The statement is TRUE.
B. The statement is FALSE.
Pancreatic exocrine secretions are stimulated by parasympathetic neural mechanisms and by hormonal agonists, CCK and secretin being the most important hormonal agonists.
A. The statement is TRUE.
B. The statement is FALSE.
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Question # 3
Pancreatic lipase, alpha-amylase, and proteases are all secreted by the acinar cells of the pancreas as inactive proenzymes.
A. The statement is TRUE.
B. The statement is FALSE.
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Question # 4
Most of the resting secretion of water and electrolytes by the pancreas is due to the activities of intralobular duct cells. The extralobular ducts are responsible for the elevated rate of water and bicarbonate secretion in response to secretin.
A. The statement is TRUE.
B. The statement is FALSE.
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Question # 5
Hormones secreted by the cells of the islets of Langerhans do not influence the function of pancreatic acinar cells.
A. The statement is TRUE.
B. The statement is FALSE.
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Question # 6
During the gastric phase, pancreatic secretion is stimulated by gastrin released from G cells in the gastric mucosa.
A. The statement is TRUE.
B. The statement is FALSE.
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Question # 7
While pancreatic acinar cells have receptors for several different agonists, CCK is the only agonist likely to play a physiologically significant role in regulating acinar cell secretion.
A. The statement is TRUE.
B. The statement is FALSE.
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Question # 8
Which statement about pancreatic exocrine secretion is NOT true?
A. The higher the flow rate the higher the bicarbonate concentration.
B. The fluid secreted by the acinar cells resembles plasma in its ionic compostion.
C. Secretin causes the extralobular ducts to elaborate a secretion high in bicarbonate.
D. CCK stimulates the secretion of the acinar cells and inhibits the secretion by the extralobular ducts.
E. None of the above.
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Question # 9
Which statement about pancreatic exocrine secretion is NOT correct?
A. Pancreatic juice contains enzymes for digesting fats, proteins, carbohydrates, and nucleic acids.
B. Cholinergic neurons stimulate pancreatic secretion.
C. During the cephalic phase, gastrin stimultates pancreatic secretion.
D. During the gastric phase, gastrin and cholinergic reflexes stimulate pancreatic secretion.
E. None of the above.
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Question # 10
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. When the rate of flow of pancreatic juice is high, its [Cl-] is much less than that of plasma.
B. In response to secretin, extralobular ducts secrete a fluid that is high in [bicarbonate].
C. During the gastric phase of pancreatic secretion, gastrin stimulates acinar cells to release digestive enzymes.
D. While CCK is the major physiological secretagogue for pancreatic acinar cells, they respond to several other hormones and neuroactive substances.
E. In the absence of secretin, the \"spontaneous secretion\" is produced by the extralobular ducts of the pancreas.
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Question # 11
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Gastrin stimulates secretion of the enzyme component of pancreatic juice.
B. In the absence of secretin, bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice is produced by extralobular ducts.
C. Hormones released by pancreatic islets have effects on pancreatic exocrine secretions.
D. Secretin and CCK potentiate one another\'s effects on duct and acinar cells, respectively.
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Answer：
1. 2.A 3.E 4.E 5.A 6.E 7.D 8.A 9.C 10.A
11.D 12.A 13.E 14.A 15.E 16.B 17.E 18.C 19.C 20.A
21.E 22.C 23.A 24.D 25.E 26.C 27.B作者: wangshuo1688 时间: 07-1-26 15:22
Urinary System
Instructions:
Select the single best answer to the numbered question.
Glomerular Filtration
Question # 1
Which of the following statements about glomerular filtration is NOT true?
A. The endothelium of the glomerular capillary is an important barrier to the passage of plasma proteins.
B. The glomerular basement membrane prevents the filtration of large plasma proteins.
C. The filtration slits between the podocytes help to retard the filtration of plasma proteins.
D. About 7 grams of albumin are filtered daily and reabsorbed by the proximal tubule.
E. Reducing the net negative charge on the components of the glomerular barrier will result in increased filtration of plasma proteins.
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Question # 2
Which of the following statements about glomerular filtration is NOT true?
A. The hydrostatic pressure drop across the glomerular capillary bed is small.
B. The oncotic pressure in capillary blood increases as blood flows through the glomerular capillary.
C. Increasing glomerular blood flow tends to increase glomerular filtration rate.
D. The filtration coefficient (Kf) of the glomerular capillaries is similar to that of most other capillary beds.
E. Contraction of mesangial cells may decrease the GFR by reducing Kf.
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Question # 3
A patient\'s GFR as measured from the inulin clearance is 125 ml/min. The patient\'s plasma creatinine is 0.01 mg/ml. The patient\'s urine flow rate is 1 ml/min and the concentration of creatinine in her urine is 1.35 mg/ml. Which of the following statements is not true?
A. The rate of filtration of creatinine is 1.25 mg/min
B. The clearance of creatinine is 125 ml/min.
C. The net rate of secretion of creatinine by the tubules is 0.1 mg/min.
D. The rate of creatinine excretion is 1.35 mg/min.
E. If the patient\'s plasma creatinine is in the steady state, the net rate of creatinine release from muscle and other cells is 1.35 mg/min.
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Question # 4
A patient\'s GFR is 125 ml/min and his plasma glucose is 4 mg/ml. The patient\'s urine flow rate is 2 ml/min and the concentration of glucose in his urine is 60 mg/ml. Which of the following statements is not true?
A. The rate at which glucose is filtered at the glomerulus is 500 mg/min.
B. The rate at which glucose is excreted is 120 mg/min.
C. The net rate of tubular reabsorption of glucose is 380 mg/min.
D. The highest plasma level for which all the filtered glucose could be reabsorbed is 2.5 mg/ml.
E. The renal function of this patient, so far as glucose is concerned, is normal.
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Question # 5
Which of the following statements about glomerular filtration is NOT correct?
A. The basal lamina (basement membrane) of the glomerular capillaries is the most important barrier to passage of plasma proteins.
B. If myoglobin is present in plasma, much of it will be filtered at the glomerulus.
C. Essentially no serum albumin is filtered, thus its daily filtered load is close to zero.
D. The filtration fraction is defined as GFR/RPF and it is normally between 0.15 and 0.20.
E. A disease that diminished the density of negative sialic acid moieties in the glomerular filtration barrier would result in greater filtration of plasma proteins.
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Question # 6
Which of the following statements about glomerular filtration is NOT correct?
A. The net filtration pressure in glomerular capillaries is not much different from that in other capillaries, but the filtration coefficient of the glomerulus is much greater than that of a typical capillary bed.
B. If the hydrostatic pressure in the glomerular capillary blood is 40 mm Hg, the capillary oncotic pressure is 25 mm Hg, and the hydrostatic pressure in Bowman\'s space is 15 mm Hg, then the net filtration pressure is zero.
C. Increasing renal blood flow will increase GFR , because when blood flow is increased the hydrostatic pressure decrease from the arterial end of the glomerular capillary to the venous end will be less.
D. Contraction of mesangial cells can decrease GFR by diminishing Kf (the filtration coefficient).
E. Dilation of the efferent arteriole should increase RPF, but should decrease GFR.
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Question # 7
Which of the following statements about the use of clearance methods to estimate GFR is NOT correct?
A. If 15% of the blood flow to a diseased kidney did not flow through the glomeruli, then the clearance of inulin would underestimate the true GFR by about 15%.
B. Creatinine clearance overestimates the GFR slightly due to secretion of creatinine in the proximal tubule.
C. If an individual with renal disease has a plasma creatinine of 3 mg/dl (1 mg/dl is normal), then that person\'s GFR is about 1/3 of the normal GFR.
D. If a substance is freely filtered at the glomerulus and is secreted and reabsorbed to the same extent (rate of secretion = rate of reabsorption), then its clearance would be a good estimate of GFR.
E. If a 70 kg person has a normal GFR and a plasma creatinine of 1 mg/dl, then that individual is expected to excrete creatinine at a rate of 1.25 mg/min, regardless of the urine flow rate.
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Question # 8
In a normal 70 kg human, we simultaneously measure the plasma levels of inulin and creatinine, the concentrations of inulin and creatinine in the urine, and the urine flow rate. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. The clearance of inulin will be about 125 ml/min.
B. The U/P ratio for inulin will be slightly less than the U/P for creatinine.
C. The GFR estimated from the creatinine clearance will be a slight overestimate of the actual GFR.
D. The clearance of creatinine will be slightly greater than the clearance of inulin.
E. We don\'t have enough information to estimate the net rate of creatinine absorption or secretion by the tubules.
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Question # 9
Which of the following statements about glomerular filtration is NOT true?
A. As blood flows through the glomerular capillaries, its hydrostatic pressure drops relatively little, but the plasma oncotic pressure rises significantly.
B. Anions are preferentially filtered over cations.
C. The glomerular basement membrane and rectangtular pores or slits in the membrane that bridges the processes of the podocytes may constitute the limiting barrier to large molecules.
D. At low renal blood flow rates, glomerular filtration rate may drop.
E. A small fraction of plasma protein is filtered into Bowman\'s Space.
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Question # 10
A person has a urine flow rate of 1 ml/min; plasma inulin = 8.33 mg/100ml; plasma creatinine = 2 mg/100ml; urine inulin = 10 mg/ml; urine creatinine = 2.6 mg/ml. Which of the following statements is not true?
A. The inulin clearance is 120 ml/min.
B. The creatinine clearance is 130 ml/min.
C. The rate of creatinine secretion is 0.1 mg/min.
D. The creatinine clearance overestimates the GFR by about 8.3%
E. The U/P ratio for creatinine is greater than that for inulin.
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Question # 11
Which of the following statements about the renal handling of creatinine and inulin is NOT true?
A. In humans, creatinine clearance is always greater than inulin clearance.
B. The inulin clearance of a 50 kg person should be about 90 ml/min.
C. Creatinine clearance in normal humans overestimates GFR by about 10%.
D. In a person with reduced GFR due to glomerular disease, but normal tubular function, creatinine clearance will overestimate GFR by a smaller fraction than in a normal individual.
E. The rate of creatinine secretion can be computed as the rate of creatinine excretion minus the filtered load of creatinine
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Question # 12
Which of the following statements about glomerular filtration is NOT true?
A. The capillary filtration coefficient of glomerular capillaries is 50 to 100 times greater than that of most other capillary beds.
B. The net filtration pressure is equal to the hydrostatic pressure in the glomerular capillary minus the hydrostatic pressure in Bowmanís space.
C. Increasing plasma flow rate in a glomerulus should tends to increase the overall rate of glomerular filtration in that glomerulus.
D. The net filtration pressure at the end of the glomerular capillary bed closest to the afferent arteriole is about 10 mm Hg.
E. The net filtration pressure diminishes as blood flows along the glomerular capillaries.
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Question # 13
Which of the following statements about control of GFR is NOT true?
A. An increase in the GFR in a particular nephron tends to increase the amount of salt and water reabsorbed from the proximal tubule of the same nephron.
B. The phenomenon described in A is partly due to decreased oncotic pressure and increased hydrostatic pressure in the peritubular capillaries of a nephron with increased GFR.
C. Increased flow rate in the macula densa of a nephron brings about diminished GFR in the glomerulus of the same nephron.
D. Contraction of mesangial cells may reduce GFR.
E. Renal disease may involve increased or decreased glomerular capillary permeability to macromolecules.
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Renal Regulation of Acid-Base Balance
Question # 1
Which of the following statements about the role of the kidney in acid-base balance is NOT true?
A. About 50 to 100 mmole of H+ are excreted each day.
B. Renal compensation for an imbalance of the bodyas acid-base status is complete in approximately 6 hours.
C. Phosphate and ammonia are the major buffers of H+ in urine.
D. In an individual with normal plasma pH, the kidney reabsorbs essentially all filtered bicarbonate.
E. The kidney is responsible for net production of bicarbonate, which helps to compensate for depletion of bicarbonate stores due to respiratory loss of CO2.
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Question # 2
Which of the following statements about the role of the kidney in acid-base balance is NOT true?
A. Systemic acidosis promotes increased H+ secretion and bicarbonate reabsorption.
B. The titratable acidity of the urine is due mostly to H+ buffered by phosphate.
C. The capacity of the kidney to metabolize glutamine to ammonium and bicarbonate increases in response to acidosis.
D. The lower the pH of the fluid in the collecting duct, the greater its concentration of NH3 relative to the [NH3] in the medullary interstitium. This is called diffusional trapping of NH3.
E. The minimum pH of urine is about 4.
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Question # 3
Which of the following statements about the role of the kidney in acid-base balance is NOT correct?
A. In order to maintain homeostasis the net excretion of H+ by the kidney must be very close to the net metabolic production of nonvolatile acid.
B. In an individual in normal acid-base balance, greater than 99.5% of filtered bicarbonate is reabsorbed.
C. H+ that is secreted by the nephron accomplishes two things: reabsorption of bicarbonate and net excretion of H+.
D. The amount of H+ secreted in order to reabsorb bicarbonate is approximately equal to the net H+ excretion in the urine.
E. In an alkalotic individual a significant amount of bicarbonate is excreted in the urine.
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Question # 4
Which of the following statements about the role of the kidney in acid-base balance is NOT correct?
A. The thick ascending limb, by virtue of its high metabolic activity, is the major site of production of NH4+ from glutamine.
B. NH4+ is reabsorbed in the thick ascending limb.
C. NH4+ excretion will be enhanced, in a matter of hours, in an acidotic individual, due to increased diffusion trapping in the lower pH urine.
D. The kidney produces \"new\" bicarbonate, the reabsorption of which helps to maintain the body\'s store of bicarbonate for buffering.
E. Over several days, the kidney increases the levels of the enzymes that catabolize glutamine to NH4+.
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Question # 5
Which of the following statements about acid-base balance is NOT true?
A. Metabolically produced H+ is first buffered in the extracellular fluid, predominantly by bicarbonate.
B. As a consequence of buffering H+, carbon dioxide is blown off in the lungs. This reduces the total concentration of bicarbonate in the extracellular fluid.
C. The kidney reabsorbs more than 99% of filtered bicarbonate.
D. H+ secretion at the brush border membrane is responsible for reabsorbing filtered bicarbonate.
E. Excretion of each NH4+ ion in the urine represents the secretion of one H+, but has no effect on the bicarbonate stores in the extracellular fluid.
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Question # 6
Which of the following statements about acid-base balance is NOT true?
A. Titratable acid represents H+ bound to certain buffers, notably phosphate and NH4+, in the urine.
B. Titratable acidity is estimated by determining the amount of strong base that must be added to a known volume of urine to bring the pH to 7.4.
C. NH4+ in urine derives largely from NH4+ produced in renal tubular epithelial cells, largely from metabolism of glutamine.
D. The amount of NH4+ excreted in urine increases in acidosis.
E. H+ secretion by tubular epithelial cells plays a central role in formation of titratable acidity and in NH4+ excretion.
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Question # 7
Which of the following factors does NOT increase bicarbonate reabsorption?
A. Extracellular volume depletion.
B. Systemic acidosis.
C. Increase in glomerular filtration rate.
D. Decrease in plasma aldosterone levels.
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Question # 8
On a standard western diet, an individual produces 50-100 mEq of nonvolatile acids. Therefore, in order to stay in acid-base balance the kidney needs to perform the following essential functions EXCEPT:
A. Reabsorb nearly all of the filtered bicarbonate.
B. Generate new bicarbonate by excreting hydrogen ions with urinary buffers.
C. Reabsorb ammonium so that ammonium delivered to the liver can be converted into bicarbonate.
D. Extract glutamine from the systemic circulation in order to generate ammonium.
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Question # 9
Which of the the following statements about ammonium production IS true during metabolic acidosis?
A. Ammonium is synthesized by collecting duct cells.
B. Ammonium is synthesized and its excretion is regulated by systemic pH.
C. Because the filtered load of ammonium, urinary phosphate is the most important urinary buffer during metabolic acidosis.
D. Ammonium production decreases in response to systemic acidosis.
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Answer：
1.B 2.D 3.D 4.A 5.E 6.A 7.D 8.C 9.B
Tubular Function
Question # 1
Which of the following statements about the proximal tubule is NOT true?
A. About two-thirds of filtered water and NaCl are reabsorbed there.
B. Most of the filtered bicarbonate is reabsobed there.
C. Several organic acids and bases are secreted by the second half of the proximal tubule.
D. Carbonic anhydrase aids in the reabsorption of filtered chloride and bicarbonate.
E. Significant flux of water and ions occurs via the paracellular pathway.
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Question # 2
Which of the following statements about the thick ascending limb (TAL) is NOT true?
A. The Na,K,2Cl transporter in the luminal membrane plays a central role in active reabsorption of NaCl.
B. The TAL is the first place in the nephron where fluid becomes hypotonic to plasma.
C. The Na,K-ATPase is the only primary active transporter.
D. Significant reabsorption of bicarbonate occurs.
E. The epithelium is highly impermeable to water, but significantly permeable to NaCl.
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Question # 3
Which of the following statements about the distal tubule and collecting duct is NOT true?
A. In the first part of the distal tubule NaCl is reabsorbed and the fluid can approach 100 milliosmoles/liter.
B. The water permeability of the first part of the distal tubule is regulated by ADH.
C. Principal cells can secrete K+.
D. Intercalated cells secrete H+ and actively take up K+.
E. Osmolarity at beginning of the collecting duct varies from hypo- to isotonic relative to plasma.
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Question # 4
Which of the following statements about the proximal tubular transport processes is NOT correct?
A. About 2/3 of water and NaCl filtered are reabsorbed in the proximal tubule.
B. In the first part of the proximal tubule the amounts of bicarbonate and Cl- reabsorbed are roughly equal.
C. Secretion of organic anions and cations occurs mostly in the second part of the proximal tubule.
D. The Na/H exchanger in the luminal membrane plays a central role in the reabsorption of bicarbonate.
E. The reabsorption of glucose and amino acids promotes the reabsorption of NaCl and water in the first part of the proximal tubule.
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Question # 5
Which of the following statements about ion transport processes in the kidney is NOT correct?
A. In the thick ascending limb (TAL) the active reabsorption of Cl- is mediated by the combined action of Na/K/2Cl transporters in the luminal membrane and electrogenic Cl- channels in the basolateral membrane.
B. Loop diuretics block the basolateral Cl- channels in the TAL.
C. In the late distal tubule and the collecting duct there are two different cell types with different transport processes: principal cells and intercalated cells.
D. Intercalated cells secrete H+ into the lumen and play an important role in acid-base balance.
E. The late distal tubule and collecting duct can either secrete K+ or reabsorb K+ in the net sense.
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Question # 6
Which of the following statements about renal handling of glucose in a 70 kg person with normal GFR is NOT correct?
A. The kidney does not participate in regulating the normal plasma glucose level.
B. If plasma glucose is 1 mg/ml, the filtered load of glucose is about 80 mg/min.
C. If we administer a drug that completely blocks glucose reabsorption, then at a plasma glucose of 1 mg/ml, glucose clearance would be about 125 ml/min.
D. If glucose begins to appear in the urine at a plasma glucose of 3.5 mg/ml, then the Tm for glucose is about 440 mg/min.
E. If the plasma glucose is 4 mg/ml and the Tm is 440 mg/min, then the glucose clearance is 15 ml/min.
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Question # 7
Which of the following statements about reabsorption in the proximal tubule is NOT true?
A. Gradient-time behavior is characteristic of solutes with high passive permeability.
B. Parathyroid hormone decreases the Tm for phosphate reabsorption.
C. In the presence of parathyroid hormone, the plasma level of phosphate tends to decrease.
D. In gout, the Tm for uric acid reabsorption is increased.
E. The rate of uric acid (ura) reabsorption is equal to (Uura V) - GFR.
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Question # 8
Which of the following statements about the renal handling of para-amino hippuric acid (PAH) is NOT true?
A. The clearance of PAH is a slight over-estimate of renal plasma flow.
B. The true rate of renal plasma flow is equal to UpahV divided by the arteriovenous PAH concentration difference.
C. For any substance (x) subject to net secretion, we can, in principle, estimate renal plasma flow from UxV divided by the A-V concentration difference for x across the kidney.
D. The rate of PAH secretion can be estimated from: UpahV - CinulinPpah, where C denotes clearance.
E. PAH in blood flowing in the vasa recta does not have all the PAH from it secreted into the urine.
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Question # 9
Which of the following statements about the handling of ions and water in the proximal tubule is NOT true?
A. The amount of Na+ reabsorbed is proportional to the GFR.
B. Normally about 2/3 of the Na+ filtered is reabsorbed.
C. The fraction of filtered Na+ reabsorbed is normally close to the fraction of filtered water reabsorbed.
D. The fraction of filtered Na+ reabsorbed is appreciably smaller than the fraction of Cl- reabsorbed.
E. In the presence of an osmotic diuretic the fraction of filtered Na+ reabsorbed is greater than the fraction of filtered water reabsorbed.
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Question # 10
A patient has GFR = 120 ml/min and urine flow of 1 ml/min. The plasma [K+] = 4.5 mM and urine [K+] = 50 mM. The plasma [Na+] = 140 mM and urine [Na+] = 75 mM.
A. The clearance of K+ is 11.1 ml/min.
B. The net rate of K+ secretion is 0.49 mmole/min.
C. The clearance of Na+ is 0.536 ml/min.
D. The rate of Na+ reabsorption is 16.73 mmole/min.
E. The fraction of filtered Na+ being excreted is 0.004.
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Question # 11
In an individual whose plasma [glucose] is 1 mg/ml, which of the following statements about renal handling of glucose is NOT true?
A. Splay in the threshold value of plasma glucose at which glucose first appears in the urine is due to the fact that not all blood perfusing the kidney supplies the proximal tubules.
B. The Tm for glucose in a normal individual is about 3 times greater than the filtered load of glucose.
C. The Tm for glucose is normally about 375 mg/min.
D. A patient with renal disease has a GFR that is reduced by 20% from normal, but has normal tubular function. The threshold plasma glucose concentration for the appearance of glucose in the urine of this patient will be about 3.75 mg/ml.
E. In a normal individual the kidney does not play a role in regulatory mechanisms that maintain plasma glucose levels within the normal range.
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Question # 12
Which of the following statements about the function of the proximal tubules is NOT true?
A. About 2/3 of filtered Na+, Cl-, K+, and water is typically reabsorbed in the proximal tubule.
B. Acidification of the luminal fluid, via the Na+/H+ exchanger, is responsible for much of the reabsorption of bicarbonate that occurs in the first half of the proximal tubule.
C. The first half the proximal tubule is the site of the most active reabsorption of glucose and amino acids.
D. The greatest fraction of Cl- reabsorption occurs in first half of the proximal tubule.
E. Carbonic anhydrase on the luminal surface of the brush border of the early proximal tubule plays an important role in bicarbonate reabsorption.
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Question # 13
Which of the following statements about tubular function is NOT true?
A. In a person in neutral fluid balance, there is net reabsorption of water in the proximal tubule, the distal tubule, the loop of Henle, and the collecting duct.
B. In the thick ascending limb (TAL), Na+, Cl- and certain other ions are reabsorbed.
C. Tubular fluid at the beginning of the distal tubule fluid is typically isotonic to plasma.
D. Partly due to the presence of H+,K+-ATPase in the luminal plasma membrane, intercalated cells reabsorb K+ and secrete H+.
E. Reabsorption of Na+ and Cl- occurs in the collecting ducts.
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Answer：
1.D 2.E 3.B 4.B 5.B 6.B 7.E 8.A 9.D 10.B
11.A 12.D 13.C
Renal Blood Flow
Question # 1
Which of the following statements about autoregulation of renal blood flow and GFR is NOT true?
A. Both renal blood flow and GFR tend to remain constant in the face of changes in mean arterial pressure from 90 to 180 mm Hg.
B. The myogenic mechanism contributes to autoregulation.
C. The renal nerves play an important role in autoregulation.
D. Tubuloglomerular feedback involving the juxtaglomerular apparatus brings about decreased renal blood flow and decreased GFR in response to an increased rate of fluid flow in the macula densa.
E. The myogenic mechanism depends on the contraction of the afferent arteriole in response to increased pressure and its relaxation in response to decreased arterial pressure.
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Question # 2
Which of the following statements about estimates of renal blood flow is NOT true?
A. The clearance of PAH is always an underestimate of the true renal plasma flow.
B. The true renal plasma flow is equal to the rate of excretion of PAH divided by the arterio-venous plasma concentration difference for PAH.
C. Increasing the plasma concentration of PAH will cause the PAH clearance to be a better estimate of renal plasma flow.
D. Renal blood flow is equal to renal plasma flow divided by (1-hematocrit).
E. Renal plasma flow in a 70 kg person is about 700 ml/min.
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Question # 3
Which of the following statements about regulation of GFR and renal blood flow (RBF) is NOT correct?
A. GFR and RBF tend to remain constant despite significant changes in arterial blood pressure.
B. The phenomenon described in A is called autoregulation. Autoregulation does not depend on the function of the renal sympathetic nerves.
C. The myogenic mechanism contributes to autoregulation: when the afferent arterioles experience elevated pressure, they contract in response.
D. The juxtaglomerular apparatus plays a role in autoregulation: increased delivery of NaCl to the macula densa leads to relaxation of the afferent arteriole.
E. Constriction of the efferent arteriole is expected to increase GFR and to decrease RBF.
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Question # 4
Which of the following statements about renal handling of PAH is NOT correct?
A. One reason that the clearance of PAH can never be a perfect estimate of renal plasma flow (RPF) is that some of the blood that perfuses the kidney does not flow through the peritubular capillaries.
B. For the reason expressed in A, even if we were to measure the level of PAH in blood in the renal artery and the renal vein, and were to compute the renal plasma flow as the rate of PAH excretion divided by the arterio-venous difference plasma PAH concentration, this quantity would underestimate the true renal plasma flow.
C. If the plasma level of PAH is increased so that the proximal tubule can no longer secrete all the PAH present in the peritubular blood, then the PAH clearance will seriously underestimate renal plasma flow.
D. Renal blood flow = RPF/(1 - hematocrit)
E. The normal renal plasma flow in a 70 kg person is about 700 ml/min.
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Question # 5
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Both renal blood flow and GFR tend to remain fairly constant in the face of significant increases or decreases in arterial blood pressure. This is known as autoregulation of GFR and RPF.
B. The sympathetic innervation of the glomerular arterioles are not required for autoregulation of GFR and RPF.
C. Autoregulation of GFR and RPF in response to an increase in blood pressure must involve constriction of the afferent arteriole.
D. Autoregulation of GFR and RPF in response to a decrease in arterial pressure must involve constriction of the efferent arteriole.
E. None of the above.
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Question # 6
Which of the following statements about renal handling of PAH (para-aminohippuric acid) is NOT true?
A. The clearance of PAH in a normal human is about 5 times the GFR.
B. PAH clearance underestimates true renal plasma flow (RPF) by about 10%.
C. The renal plasma flow, computed as the rate of excretion of PAH divided by the difference in PAH concentration between renal arterial plasma and renal venous plasma, will underestimate true renal plasma flow.
D. The filtration fraction in a normal human is between 0.15 and 0.2.
E. Increasing the plasma concentration of PAH may cause the PAH clearance to be a greater underestimate of true renal plasma flow.
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Question # 7
Which of the following statements about regulation of GFR and renal blood flow (RBF) is NOT true?
A. RBF and GFR tend to remain rather constant in the face of marked changes in mean arterial pressure. This is called autoregulation.
B. The myogenic mechanism contributes to autoregulation of RBF, but not to autoregulation of GFR.
C. If increased GFR in a particular nephron leads to increased rate of fluid flow in the macula densa of that nephron, then the macula densa does something that results in constriction of the afferent arteriole of that same nephron.
D. A decrease in arterial blood pressure tends to lead to relaxation of afferent arterioles.
E. An increased resistance of the afferent arterioles with a similar decrease in resistance of the efferent arterioles should lead to diminished GFR with little change in RBF.
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Answer：
1.C 2.C 3.D 4.D 5.D 6.C 7.B
Production of Concentrated and Diluted Urine
Question # 1
Which of the following statements about the production of concentrated urine is NOT true?
A. The accumulation of NaCl in the medullary interstitium depends on the active reabsorption of NaCl by the thick ascending limb.
B. Countercurrent multiplication in the vasa recta helps to prevent washout of the medullary gradients of NaCl and urea.
C. In the presence of ADH urea is reabsorbed from the inner medullary collecting ducts.
D. The descending limb of the loop of Henle is permeable to water.
E. In the presence of high levels of ADH, about 50% of the osmolality of the interstitum of the inner medulla is due to NaCl.
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Question # 2
Which of the following statements about the renal concentrating mechanism is NOT correct?
A. The active reabsorption of NaCl in the thick ascending limb is known as the single effect.
B. The TAL can create a gradient of NaCl between tubular fluid and medullary interstitium of about 200 mosmolal at a given depth in the medulla.
C. As fluid descends in the descending limb, water is osmotically withdrawn and NaCl in the tubular fluid becomes concentrated.
D. As fluid ascends in the thin ascending limb, Na+ and Cl- are passively reabsorbed.
E. Fluid leaving the TAL is approximately iso-osmotic to plasma.
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Question # 3
Which of the following statements about the renal concentrating mechanism is NOT correct?
A. In the presence of ADH, fluid in the later part of the distal tubule and the cortical collecting duct is hypo-osmotic with respect to plasma.
B. In the presence of ADH, urea is reabsorbed from the inner medullary collecting duct and accumulates there to a level of approximately 600 mM.
C. In the absence of ADH, the level of urea in the inner medullary interstitium declines.
D. The total solute excretion rate tends to remain relatively constant in the face of large changes in urine volume and urine osmolality.
E. In the absence of ADH, the osmolality of urine is less than the osmolality of fluid in the cortical collecting duct.
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Question # 4
Which of the following statements about the concentration of Na+ in the tubular fluid is NOT true?
A. In the proximal tubule, it is normally approximately equal to that in plasma.
B. In the thick ascending limb of Henle, it is normally less than that in plasma.
C. In the first part of the distal tubule, Na+ concentration is equal to that in plasma when ADH is present.
D. In the absence of ADH, Na+ concentration in the beginning of the collecting duct is less than that in plasma.
E. In the absence of ADH, Na+ concentration falls as fluid progresses down the collecting duct.
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Question # 5
Which of the following statements about ADH is NOT true?
A. Osmoreceptors in the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei respond to hypertonicity by increasing ADH release.
B. Alcohol causes diuresis by inhibiting ADH release.
C. Hyperosmolality stimulates both ADH release and thirst.
D. ADH inhibits the action of aldosterone to promote salt and water reabsorption in the distal tubule.
E. ADH increases the water permeability of the lumenal membrane of the later part of the distal tubule and the collecting duct by causing more water channel proteins to be inserted in these membranes.
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Question # 6
Which of the following statements about the urine concentrating mechanism in the renal medulla is NOT true?
A. The thick ascending limb actively reabsorbs Na+ to produce the single effect Cl- follows to preserve electroneutrality.
B. The water permeability of the descending limb is higher than that of the ascending limb.
C. The deeper in the medulla, the higher the NaCl concentration.
D. In the presence of ADH the total osmolality of the interstitial fluid near the tip of the renal papilla is reduced.
E. Animals with longer loops of Henle can produce more concentrated urine.
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Question # 7
Which of the following statements about renal handling of urea is NOT true?
A. Urea deposited in the inner medulla plays a role in the mechanism by which the kidney produces hyperosmotic urine.
B. Urea reabsorbed in the inner medullary collecting ducts enters the tubular fluid in the loops of Henle.
C. In the presence of ADH, urea is concentrated in the late distal tubule and the cortical collecting ducts when water is absorbed there.
D. In the absence of ADH, there is less deposition of urea in the inner medulla.
E. When there is a high flow rate in the inner medullary collecting ducts, there is a high rate of urea reabsorption there.
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Question # 8
Which of the following statements about production of concentrated and dilute urine is NOT true?
A. The range of osmolality of urine that a normal human can produce is from 50 mosmoles/liter with no ADH to 1200 mosmoles/liter with maximal levels of ADH.
B. The ability to produce a concentrated urine, but not the ability to produce a dilute urine, depends on the reabsorption of NaCl by the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle (the TAL).
C. Countercurrent multiplication of NaCl, but not urea, occurs in the loop of Henle.
D. Deposition of urea in the interstitium of the inner medulla depends on the presence of ADH.
E. In the presence of maximal ADH, the osmolality of NaCl in the inner medullary interstitium is about equal to the osmolality of urea there.
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Question # 9
Which of the following statements of diuretics is NOT true?
A. Osmotic diuretics result in increased reabsorption of NaCl by the thick ascending limb (TAL).
B. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors may contribute to metabolic acidosis.
C. The target of loop diuretics is the reabsorption of Na+ by the electrogenic Na+ channels in the luminal plasma membrane of the TAL.
D. Potassium sparing diuretics decrease Na+ transport across the luminal plasma membranes of principal cells of the late distal tubule and collecting duct.
E. Potassium sparing diuretics do not produce a large increase in urine flow rate.
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Answer：
1.B 2.E 3.A 4.C 5.D 6.A 7.E 8.B 9.C
Regulation of the Volume and Osmolality of Extracellular Fluid
Question # 1
Which of the following statements about the responses to depleted extracellular fluid volume is NOT true?
A. Increased activity in renal sympathetic nerves will result in decreased GFR and increased NaCl reabsorption in proximal tubule.
B. If the volume depletion is large, ADH release will be decreased.
C. Renin will be released due to decreased pressure in afferent arterioles and decreased delivery of NaCl to the macula densa.
D. Angiotensin II levels will rise, enhancing thirst and increasing NaCl reabsorption in the proximal tubule.
E. Level of atrial natriuretic peptide will decrease.
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Question # 2
Which of the following statements about the responses to expanded extracellular volume is NOT true?
A. Decreased activity in renal sympathetic nerves will result in increased GFR and decreased reabsorption of NaCl in proximal tubule.
B. Increased levels of atrial natriuretic peptide will stimulate reabsorption of NaCl in collecting ducts.
C. Decreased levels renin will be released, leading to diminished levels of angiotensin II.
D. Decreased release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex will result in less reabsorption of NaCl in distal tubule and collecting duct.
E. The diminished angiotensin II levels will contribute to less reabsorption of NaCl by the proximal tubule.
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Question # 3
Which of the following statements about regulation of plasma osmolality is NOT true?
A. Urine volume can vary from about 0.5 to 20 liters/day, while urine osmolality can vary from about 50 mosmolal to 2500 mosmolal.
B. Total solute excretion (mosmoles/unit time) tends to remain constant in the face of large changes in volume and osmolality.
C. ADH release is much more sensitive to changes in the osmolality of extracellular fluid than to changes in extracellular fluid volume.
D. In a patient with expanded extracellular volume, ADH release in response to an increase in osmolality is decreased (relative to an individual with normal ECF volume).
E. In a volume-expanded individual the release of ADH is suppressed via neural reflexes.
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Question # 4
Which of the following statements about the renal regulation of extracellular fluid (ECF) volume is NOT correct?
A. In a volume depleted individual, increased reabsorption of Na+ in Henle\'s loop is brought about by increased levels of aldosterone and ADH.
B. In response to decreased extracellular fluid volume, more NaCl is reabsorbed in the collecting ducts. This effect is promoted by elevated levels of aldosterone.
C. In response to expansion of the extracellular fluid volume, levels of renin and ADH in the circulation decrease.
D. In response to expansion of the extracellular fluid volume, impulse traffic in sympathetic nerves to the kidney increases.
E. In response to expansion of extracellular fluid volume, less reabsorption of Na+ occurs in the proximal tubule.
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Question # 5
Which of the following statements about responses to decreased extracellular volume is NOT correct?
A. There are decreased levels of ANP, hence increased reabsorption of Na+ in the collecting duct.
B. There is increased impulse traffic in renal sympathetic nerves and hence decreased GFR.
C. There are increased levels of aldosterone and hence increased reabsorption of Na+ in the proximal tubule.
D. There is an increase in ADH and hence production of a small volume of urine with high osmolality.
E. There will be increased levels of angiotensin II and hence increased reabsorption of Na+ in the proximal tubule.
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Question # 6
Which of the following statements control of the osmolality of body fluids NOT correct?
A. ADH is the only major regulator of urine osmolality.
B. The maximal osmolality of urine is about 1200 mosmolal.
C. ADH is released in response to increased osmolality of extracellular fluid.
D. ADH is released in response to depletion of the volume of the extracellular fluid.
E. The release of ADH is about as sensitive to changes in ECF osmolality as to changes in ECF volume.
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Question # 7
Which of the following statements about regulation of salt and water reabsorption in the proximal tubule is NOT correct?
A. When GFR in a single nephron increases at constant plasma flow, the oncotic pressure in the peritubular capillary increases. This promotes increased reabsorption of salt and water from the proximal tubule of that same nephron.
B. When GFR in a single nephron increases at constant plasma flow, the hydrostatic pressure in the peritubular capillary increases. This promotes increased reabsorption of salt and water from the proximal tubule of that same nephron.
C. When GFR increases, the filtered load of glucose and amino acids increases. This tends to promote increased reabsorption of salt and water in the proximal tubule.
D. Angiotensin II increases NaCl reabsorption in the proximal tubule.
E. Activity in sympathetic nerves stimulates NaCl reabsorption in the proximal tubule.
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Question # 8
Which of the following statements about ADH is NOT true?
A. Hyperosmolality in the supraoptic nuclei causes ADH release from the posterior pituitary.
B. Increased pulse pressure causes decreased ADH release from the posterior pituitary.
C. Stretch of the left atrium causes decreased release of ADH.
D. Increased ADH induces the sensation of thirst.
E. ADH increases the permeability of the collecting ducts to water and Na+.
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Question # 9
A patient has urinary osmolality of 50 mOsm/L, a urine flow rate of 15 ml/min, and a plasma osmolality of 300 mOsm/L. Which of the following statements about this patient is NOT true?
A. The patient is in pronounced diuresis.
B. The patient\'s osmolar clearance is 2.5 ml/min.
C. The patient\'s free water clearance is 12.5 ml/min.
D. The osmotically active solute in the patient\'s urine each minute is equal to that in 2.5 ml of plasma.
E. The patient is excreting 750 mosmoles of solute each minute.
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Question # 10
Which of the following statements about regulation of osmolality is NOT true?
A. Osmolar clearance is equal to urine osmolality times urine flow rate divided by plasma osmolality.
B. Free water clearance is equal to urine flow rate minus osmolar clearance.
C. Osmolar clearance tends to remain constant in the face of changes in urine flow rate.
D. In the absence of ADH, free water clearance tends to be positive and large.
E. A free water clearance of negative 1.5 ml/min means that the effect on total body osmolality is equivalent to the addition to the extracellular space of 1.5 ml of isotonic saline per minute.
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Question # 11
A patient complains of several days of vomiting and diarrhea and is found to have a reduced effective circulating volume that activates the sympathetic nervous system. In this case, activation of the sympathetic nervous system reduces sodium excretion by the following mechanisms EXCEPT:
A. Decreases glomerular hydrostatic pressure by increasing afferent arteriolar constriction.
B. Increases renin secretion leading to an increase in plasma angiotensin II and aldosterone levels.
C. Indirectly increases proximal tubule sodium reabsorption through the action of aldosterone on proximal tubule cells.
D. Directly increases reabsorption of sodium by the proximal tubule and loop of Henle.
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Question # 12
In response to an expanded effective circulating volume, atrial natriuretic peptide is released from the cardiac atria to promote sodium excretion by the following mechanisms EXCEPT:
A. Increased glomerular filtration rate by dilating afferent arterioles.
B. Decreased sodium reabsorption by the collecting duct cells.
C. Decreased aldosterone secretion by the adrenal cortex.
D. Decreased NaCl transport by the thick ascending limb.
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Question # 13
Which of the following statements about regulation of plasma osmolality is NOT true:
A. ADH release is influenced by nonosmotic stimuli including blood volume and certain medications.
B. ADH release is more sensitive to changes in plasma osmolality than to changes in effective circulating volume
C. Urine volume can vary between 0.5 to 20 L/day in a normal individual.
D. Regulation of ADH release and perception of thirst work together to maintain plasma osmolality.
E. Total solute excretion is highly dependent on the urine flow rate.
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